ExamWise For CIW Internetworking Professional Exam 1D0-460
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Author Chad M. Bayer Published by TotalRecall Publications, Inc., Inc. 1103 Middlecreek Friendswood, TX 77546 281-992-3131
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This book is dedicated to my parents, Carl and Cynthia Bayer. Keep up the good work!
Chad M. Bayer
ExamWise For CIW Internetworking Professional BY Chad M. Bayer About the Author Chad Bayer has been working in the computer industry for over 6 years and is currently CIW Certifiable. His background is quite varied in regards to CIW and is interested in both the engineering of software and hardware. Chad is working towards his computer engineering degree at the University of Texas in Dallas.
About the Book Part of the TotalRecall: IT Question Book Series For CIW certification, this new Self Help and Interactive Exam Study Aid is now available for candidate’s preparing to sit the CIW 1D0-460 TCP/IP Internetworking and Advanced TCP/IP Concepts and Practices. The book covers the information associated with each of the exam topics in detail and includes information found in no other book. Using the book will help readers determine if they are ready for the CIW 1D0-460 Internetworking Professional Certification exam. This book provides Questions, Answers, and Explanations that explain the concepts in a clear and easy-to-understand manner. This book is designed for the EXPERIENCED user that desires to build their confidence by refreshing their knowledge of CIW material. About Online Testing Your FREE BFQOnline.com Practice Tests include Interactive Exam Study Aid with instant feedback fro simulated and adaptive testing with detailed explanations. Register your book purchase at www.TotalRecallPress.com or send an email to
[email protected] for your free 30 day Registration. Located in the back of this book are the instructions for obtaining your Free 30 day Registration for the online practice test. The Registration is good for access to only the CIW Internetworking Professional Exam.
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1D0-460 Exam Preparation for TCP/IP Internetworking & Advanced TCP/IP Concepts & Practices. CIW Certification Home Page
http://www.ciwcertified.com/default.asp CIW Certification Path Information http://www.ciwcertified.com/certifications/program.asp?comm=home&llm=3 CIW Exam 1D0-460 guide location http://www.ciwcertified.com/exams/1d0460.asp?comm=home&llm=4#examinfo Note:
Exam subject matter and skills being measured are subject to change at any time without prior notice and at CIW’s sole discretion
Certification Credit The CIW Internetworking Professional exam is a requirement for the following: • CIW Certified Instructor • Master CIW Administrator Candidates who pass the exam will receive CIW Professional certification. Prerequisites Candidates must complete the following prerequisites prior to sitting the CIW Internetworking Professional exam: CIW Certification Agreement. This simple on-line agreement needs to be completed only once, but is necessary for CIW Certification Central to ship CIW certificates (CIW Associate, CIW Professional or Master CIW certificates) to candidates who pass the required CIW certification exam(s). • CIW Internetworking Professional. Passing the CIW Internetworking Professional exam 1D0-460 is required for those candidates seeking Master CIW Administrator certification designation. • No candidate is restricted from taking the CIW Server Administrator Professional exam. However, it is highly recommended that candidates take (and pass) CIW exams in sequential order. • CIW Internetworking Professional certification is a prerequisite for the CIW Security Professional exam, and a requirement for Master CIW Administrator certification.
Exam Information Students who have taken CIW courses are encouraged to continue their studies and apply their new skills before attempting the 1D0-460 Internetworking Professional exam. Skills taught in the CIW Internetworking Professional courses are best reinforced with real-world experience. The candidate is responsible for learning the content and achieving a passing score on the CIW Internetworking Professional exam. Any 1D0-460 CIW Internetworking Professional exam will be subject to the following: Each delivery of the exam will include a random selection of 60 items. The examination period will be 75 minutes. To achieve a passing score on the 1D0-460 CIW Internetworking Professional exam, candidates must: • Correctly answer at least 45 of the 60 questions to achieve a total score of 75% or greater, AND • Correctly answer at least 70% of the questions in each individual module. Module Number of Items TCP/IP Internetworking 30 Advanced TCP/IP Concepts and Practices 30 Each exam item offers four solutions or distracters. Exam candidates must select the one best solution for each item. Exam Audience Network engineers, network architects, internetworking engineers, LAN/WAN administrators, systems administrators, systems managers, intranet administrators. Candidates should have the following prerequisites completed before taking the exam: CIW Foundations certification or have equivalent experience, and have a working knowledge of UNIX, Novell or Windows NT/2000 systems and network administration.
Skills Measured A CIW Internetworking Professional defines network architecture, identifies infrastructure components, and monitors and analyzes network performance. This individual is responsible for the design and management of enterprise TCP/IP networks. Skills measured in the 1D0460 exam include but are not limited to: Internet infrastructure, including the National Science Foundation network (NSFnet), the Internet Society (ISOC), and key internetworking protocols. Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) and the Internet architecture model, the operational essentials of TCP/IP, and the Requests for Comments (RFCs) that define these essential elements. Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) addressing, the concept of uniqueness, IP address classes, and subnet address calculation. Network access layer, the Internet layer, and the transport layer. Application-layer Internet protocols, such as Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). Domain Name System (DNS), including its architecture and record types. BOOTstrap Protocol (BOOTP), and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and client. Routing, including direct versus indirect routing, static versus dynamic routing, and interior versus exterior protocols and gateways. Troubleshooting tools and TCP/IP network troubleshooting. Network management architectures, protocols and components, including SNMP. IPv4 versus IPv6. IPv6 address architecture. IPv6 routing and security issues. Migration from IPv4 to IPv6, including the mechanisms proposed by the Simple Internet Transition.
Current CIW Exams http://www.ciwcertified.com/exams/general.asp?comm=home&llm=4 CIW ASSOCIATE CERTIFICATE: Requires passing • CIW Foundations (exam 1D0-410) CIW PROFESSIONAL CERTIFICATE: Requires CIW Associate certification (CIW Foundations exam 1D0-410) and passing any one of the following CIW job-role exams: •
CIW Site Designer
(exam 1D0-420)
•
CIW E-Commerce Designer
(exam 1D0-425)
•
CIW Server Administrator
(exam 1D0-450)
•
CIW Internetworking Professional
(exam 1D0-460)
•
CIW Security Professional
(exam 1D0-470)
•
CIW Application Developer
(exam 1D0-430)
•
CIW Database Specialist
(exam 1D0-441)
•
CIW Enterprise Specialist
(exam 1D0-442)
X Table of Contents
Table of Contents About the Author ............................................................................................... IV About the Book ................................................................................................... V About Online Testing.......................................................................................... V 1D0-460 Exam Preparation for TCP/IP Internetworking & Advanced TCP/IP Concepts & Practices. ........................................................................................ VI Current CIW Exams........................................................................................... IX
Unit 1: TCP/IP Internetworking Chapter 1: Internet Infrastructure
1
Chapter 2: TCP/IP Architecture
19
Chapter 3: Internet Addressing
27
Chapter 4: Network Access Layer
51
Chapter 5: Internet Layer
59
Chapter 6: Transport Layer
67
Chapter 7: Domain Name System
85
Chapter 8: Address and Parameter Allocation for TCP/IP Hosts
107
Table of Contents XI
Unit 2: Advanced TCP/IP Concepts & Practices Chapter 1: Routing
119
Chapter 2: TCP/IP Troubleshooting Tools
135
Chapter 3: Troubleshooting TCP/IP Networks
147
Chapter 4: Network Management Fundamentals
161
Chapter 5: SNMP History, Process and Architecture
183
Chapter 6: Management Information Base
205
Chapter 7: SNMP in the Enterprise
215
Chapter 8: IPv6 - Introduction and IPv4 Comparison
229
Chapter 9: IPv6 Header and Extension Headers
239
Chapter 10: IPv6 Address Architecture
255
Chapter 11: IPv6 Routing and Security
275
Chapter 12: Reduced Network Management (IPv6)
289
Chapter 13: Transitioning to IPv6
303
Money Back Book Guarantee
315
Registration Instructions
316
Unit 1: TCP/IP Internetworking
Unit 1: TCP/IP Internetworking
Internet Infrastructure 1
Chapter 1: Internet Infrastructure 1. Which of these is an example of a network? A. 500 computers running Word. B. Two computers sharing a file C. Three users exchanging zip disks. D. A Palm Pilot connected to your laptop computer
2. Internetworking is best represented by? A. A homogeneous LAN B. A homogeneous WAN C. A heterogeneous WAN D. A heterogeneous LAN
2 Chapter 1
1. Which of these is an example of a network? A. 500 computers running Word. *B. Two computers sharing a file C. Three users exchanging zip disks. D. A Palm Pilot connected to your laptop computer Explanation: Networking is two of more computers connected together that share resources, such as data or printers.
2. Internetworking is best represented by? A. A homogeneous LAN B. A homogeneous WAN *C. A heterogeneous WAN D. A heterogeneous LAN Explanation: Internetworking reaches beyond the traditional, homogeneous, corporate LAN/WAN to connect the heterogeneous systems of corporate partners, vendors and customers.
Internet Infrastructure 3
3. Your company's Ethernet, TCP/IP network must connect to different networks. Choose the appropriate special connection devices to connect disparate system; (Choose all that apply): A. A router may be used to connect to a Token Ring network or a FDDI Ring Network B. A router may be used to connect to a Novell IPX/SPX network. C. A gateway may be used to connect to a Novell IPX/SPX network D. A router may be used to connect to an IBM SNA network. E. A router may be used to an Apple network if it is using TCP/IP
4. Your neighbor asks you what is so good about the Internet and TCP/IP. You correctly state that: (Choose all the correct answers): A. TCP/IP is government proprietary B. TCP/IP is vendor-neutral C. The Internet has a central hub managed by the a government-industry consortium. D. Control of the Internet is spread out
4 Chapter 1
3. Your company's Ethernet, TCP/IP network must connect to different networks. Choose the appropriate special connection devices to connect disparate system; (Choose all that apply): *A. A router may be used to connect to a Token Ring network or a FDDI Ring Network B. A router may be used to connect to a Novell IPX/SPX network. *C. A gateway may be used to connect to a Novell IPX/SPX network *D. A router may be used to connect to a IBM SNA network. *E. A router may be used to an Apple network if it is using TCP/IP Explanation: Routers can connect you to any other TCP/IP network. A gateway is required when the networking protocol changes to IPX/SPX, NWLink. NetBeui, or any other protocol, such as SLIP or PPP for dial-up networking.
4. Your neighbor asks you what is so good about the Internet and TCP/IP. You correctly state that: (Choose all the correct answers): A. TCP/IP is government proprietary *B. TCP/IP is vendor-neutral C. The Internet has a central hub managed by the a government-industry consortium. *D. Control of the Internet is spread out Explanation: TCP/IP is vendor-neutral. There is no central point of failure for the Internet. Redundant paths were part of its initial design to allow it to survive a nuclear attack.
Internet Infrastructure 5
5. Just as the US Constitution has evolved by the process of amendments, the Internet has changed through the approval of _____________. This approval process is overseen by the ___________. A. RFCs, IAB B. TCOs, ISO C. RFCs, ISO D. TCOs, IAB
6. A developer, Sergio, at your software company becomes sentimental and teary-eyed when he discusses the OSI Reference model. Why does he hold it in such high regard? (Choose all that apply) A. It give developers the fundamental concepts they need to develop protocols B. It explains the framework necessary to link heterogeneous systems. C. It was the precursor of the Internet D. It describes the process by which packets are created and information is added or stripped off as the packet traverses the layers of the OSI model.
6 Chapter 1
5. Just as the US Constitution has evolved by the process of amendments, the Internet has changed through the approval of _____________. This approval process is overseen by the ___________. *A. RFCs, IAB B. TCOs, ISO C. RFCs, ISO D. TCOs, IAB Explanation: The Internet Architecture Board (IAB) with the help of its suborganization, the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) approves changes to the Internet that are called Requests For Comments (RFCs).
6. A developer, Sergio, at your software company becomes sentimental and teary-eyed when he discusses the OSI Reference model. Why does he hold it in such high regard? (Choose all that apply) *A. It give developers the fundamental concepts they need to develop protocols *B. It explains the framework necessary to link heterogeneous systems. C. It was the precursor of the Internet *D. It describes the process by which packets are created and information is added or stripped off as the packet traverses the layers of the OSI model. Explanation: The Internet started in the late 1960's while the OSI reference model was popularized in the early 1980's.
Internet Infrastructure 7
7. What can correctly be said about the various layers of the OSI Reference Model? A. At the lowest layer, the Physical layer transmits bits of information and defines the electrical and mechanical characteristics of devices such as NICs and hubs. B. The driver for the NIC is at the Data Link layer (Media Access Control sublayer) C. The Network layer is responsible for error control D. The Transport layer is responsible for addressing E. The Presentation layer is responsible for encryption and compression.
8. A packet is composed of a header, data, and trailer. What is the purpose of a header, and what is the purpose of a trailer? A. A header has addressing information B. A trailer has addressing information C. A header has a CRC D. A trailer has a CRC E. A header may have booth addressing information and a CRC.
8 Chapter 1
7. What can correctly be said about the various layers of the OSI Reference Model? *A. At the lowest layer, the Physical layer transmits bits of information and defines the electrical and mechanical characteristics of devices such as NICs and hubs. *B. The driver for the NIC is at the Data Link layer (Media Access Control sublayer) C. The Network layer is responsible for error control D. The Transport layer is responsible for addressing *E. The Presentation layer is responsible for encryption and compression. Explanation: The Transport layer is responsible for error control. The Network layer is responsible for addressing.
8. A packet is composed of a header, data, and trailer. What is the purpose of a header, and what is the purpose of a trailer? *A. A header has addressing information B. A trailer has addressing information C. A header has a CRC *D. A trailer has a CRC E. A header may have booth addressing information and a CRC. Explanation: A header has addressing information, and a trailer has a cyclic redundancy check or other algorithm to verify the integrity of the packet.
Internet Infrastructure 9
9. Where does a packet start and where does it go? A. A packet starts at the Physical layer, and then information is added at the higher layers B. A packet starts at the Application layer, and the descends the protocol stack where information is stripped off C. A packet starts at the Application layer where a header is also added, and as the packet descends the protocol stack an additional header is added at each layer except the physical layer. D. A packet travels to the destination host's physical layer where as the packet ascends the protocol stack, headers are stripped off at each of the top six layers. E. A packet travels to the destination host's physical layer where as the packet ascends the protocol stack, headers are added at each of the top six layers.
10. Which of the following are examples of Application layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): A. TCP, SPX, and NetBeui B. FTP, HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and SNMP C. SMB, NCP, AFP and NFS D. IP, IPX, and NetBeui
10 Chapter 1
9. Where does a packet start and where does it go? A. A packet starts at the Physical layer, and then information is added at the higher layers B. A packet starts at the Application layer, and the descends the protocol stack where information is stripped off *C. A packet starts at the Application layer where a header is also added, and as the packet descends the protocol stack an additional header is added at each layer except the physical layer. *D. A packet travels to the destination host's physical layer where as the packet ascends the protocol stack, headers are stripped off at each of the top six layers. E. A packet travels to the destination host's physical layer where as the packet ascends the protocol stack, headers are added at each of the top six layers. Explanation: A packet starts at the Application layer where a header is also added, and as the packet descends the protocol stack an additional header is added at each layer except the physical layer. A packet travels to the destination host's physical layer where as the packet ascends the protocol stack, headers are stripped off at each of the top six layers.
10. Which of the following are examples of Application layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): A. TCP, SPX, and NetBeui *B. FTP, HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and SNMP *C. SMB, NCP, AFP and NFS D. IP, IPX, and NetBeui Explanation: At the highest layer, Application layer protocols allow applications to talk to each other across the network.
Internet Infrastructure 11
11. Which are examples of Transport layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): A. TCP, SPX, NetBeui, NWLink B. IP, IPX, NWLink, NetBeui C. SMB, NCP, NFS D. X.25, Ethernet
12. Which are examples of Network layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): A. TCP, SPX, NetBeui, NWLink B. IP, IPX, NWLink, NetBeui C. SMB, NCP, NFS D. Slip, and PPP
12 Chapter 1
11. Which are examples of Transport layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): *A. TCP, SPX, NetBeui, NWLink B. IP, IPX, NWLink, NetBeui C. SMB, NCP, NFS D. X.25, Ethernet Explanation: Transport layer protocols provide reliable delivery.
12. Which are examples of Network layer protocols? (Choose all that apply): A. TCP, SPX, NetBeui, NWLink *B. IP, IPX, NWLink, NetBeui C. SMB, NCP, NFS D. Slip, and PPP Explanation: Network layer protocols provide addressing and routing information.
Internet Infrastructure 13
13. NetBeui requires no configuration and is a fast protocol with a small memory footprint. DLC is a wonderful protocol for talking to HP printers and mainframes. What is wrong with these protocols? (Choose 2): A. They are routable, unlike TCP/IP, NWLink and IPX/SPX B. They are not routable, unlike TCP/IP, NWLink and IPX/SPX C. They can be used in WANs, but not on the Internet D. They can only be used in LANs.
14. How would you compare the four-layer Internet Architecture model to the sevenlayer OSI reference model? (Choose all that apply): A. The Network Access layer maps to the Physical and Data Link layers B. The Internet layer maps to the Network layer only C. The Transport layer maps to the Session and Transport layers D. The Application layer maps to the Application layer only E. The Application layer maps to the Application, and Presentation layers
14 Chapter 1
13. NetBeui requires no configuration and is a fast protocol with a small memory footprint. DLC is a wonderful protocol for talking to HP printers and mainframes. What is wrong with these protocols? (Choose 2): A. They are routable, unlike TCP/IP, NWLink and IPX/SPX *B. They are not routable, unlike TCP/IP, NWLink and IPX/SPX C. They can be used in WANs, but not on the Internet *D. They can only be used in LANs. Explanation: TCP/IP, IPX/SPX, and NWLink can address and pass through routers to remote networks.
14. How would you compare the four-layer Internet Architecture model to the sevenlayer OSI reference model? (Choose all that apply): *A. The Network Access layer maps to the Physical and Data Link layers *B. The Internet layer maps to the Network layer only *C. The Transport layer maps to the Session and Transport layers D. The Application layer maps to the Application layer only *E. The Application layer maps to the Application, and Presentation layers Explanation: The four-layer Internet Architecture model preceded the seven-layer OSI reference model.
Internet Infrastructure 15
15. Your Big Shoes Company buys the Long Laces Company. You both have Novell networks, yet cannot communicate. What might be the problem? A. You need to upgrade to the vendor-neutral version of IPX/SPX B. You need to upgrade to NWLink C. Frame type D. You need to upgrade to a connection-oriented version of IPX
16. You are setting up your network. You have a choice of protocols. NetBeui is faster and takes no configuration. TCP/IP is routable. NWLink allows you to speak to Netware networks. What criteria should you use in choosing protocols? A. Use a variety of protocols to provide redundancy and backup. B. Use a variety of protocols in case you must speak to diverse hosts across the Internet C. If possible, use only one protocol due to increase speed and decrease troubleshooting D. Do not use excess protocols or services as they may present a security risk.
16 Chapter 1
15. Your Big Shoes Company buys the Long Laces Company. You both have Novell networks, yet cannot communicate. What might be the problem? A. You need to upgrade to the vendor-neutral version of IPX/SPX B. You need to upgrade to NWLink *C. Frame type D. You need to upgrade to a connection-oriented version of IPX Explanation: The default IPX/SPX frame type for Netware 3.11 and below is 802.3, and the default frame type for Netware 3.12 through Netware 4.11 is 802.2. The default protocol for Netware 5.x is TCP/IP. IPX/SPX is proprietary to Novell. NWLink is Microsoft's 32 bit clone of IPX/SPX. IPX is connectionless as IP. SPX is connectionoriented as TCP.
16. You are setting up your network. You have a choice of protocols. NetBeui is faster and takes no configuration. TCP/IP is routable. NWLink allows you to speak to Netware networks. What criteria should you use in choosing protocols? A. Use a variety of protocols to provide redundancy and backup. B. Use a variety of protocols in case you must speak to diverse hosts across the Internet *C. If possible, use only one protocol due to increase speed and decrease troubleshooting *D. Do not use excess protocols or services as they may present a security risk. Explanation: Use only the protocols and services you need to decrease overhead and increase security. TCP/IP is the only protocol that you need to speak to hosts on the Internet. The binding order on the workstation is what determines which protocol is tried first.
Notes:
Internet Addressing 19
Chapter 2: TCP/IP Architecture 1. Which TCP/IP protocols are on which Internet Architecture layer? A. Physical connections, the Nic and Nic drivers are on the Network Access layer B. ARP and RARP are on the Network Access layer C. IP, ICMP, and IGMP are on the Internet Layer D. TCP and UDP are on the Transport layer E. FTP, HTTP, SMTP, SNMP, TELNET, POP3 and IMAP are on the Application layer
2. During a meeting, your boss asks you about IPv6, whether you should upgrade to this for your new gigabit Ethernet network. You could get the most current status of this protocol by reading ___________? (Choose 2): A. The RFCs B. Emailing the IAB C. Checking out the newsgroups at Microsoft.com D. Going to www.rfc-editor.org/rfc.html
20 Chapter 2
1. Which TCP/IP protocols are on which Internet Architecture layer? *A. Physical connections, the Nic and Nic drivers are on the Network Access layer B. ARP and RARP are on the Network Access layer *C. IP, ICMP, and IGMP are on the Internet Layer *D. TCP and UDP are on the Transport layer *E. FTP, HTTP, SMTP, SNMP, TELNET, POP3 and IMAP are on the Application layer Explanation: ARP and RARP are also on the Internet layer
2. During a meeting, your boss asks you about IPv6, whether you should upgrade to this for your new gigabit Ethernet network. You could get the most current status of this protocol by reading ___________? (Choose 2): *A. The RFCs B. Emailing the IAB C. Checking out the newsgroups at Microsoft.com *D. Going to www.rfc-editor.org/rfc.html Explanation: Requests for Comments (RFCs) provide the status of protocols, host and router requirements.
Internet Addressing 21
3. Your boss does not want to be on the bleeding edge of technology. He wants to know what is the difference between a RFC and a Internet Standard, and if your company should only use Internet Standards. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply): A. Once a protocol enhancement is thoroughly tested it stops being a RFC and becomes a Internet Standard. B. There is a one-to-one correspondence between RFCs and Internet Standards, C. All protocols, even Internet Standards are indexed as RFCs. D. Several RFCs may become one Internet Standard. E. RFC 2600, STD 1 lists the current Internet protocol standards and the current status of all RFCs.
4. What do you know about these Internet protocols? (Choose all the true statements): A. The Network Access layer includes LAN and WAN access methods including Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, Frame Relay, Serial Lines and ATM. B. The Network Access layer includes specifications for NICs, NIC drivers and connectors. C. The Internet layer is the host for the connection-oriented IP. D. UDP is resides at the Transport layer and is up to 10 times faster than TCP. E. UDP is best for small amounts of data that do not require an acknowledgement, such as broadcasts.
22 Chapter 2
3. Your boss does not want to be on the bleeding edge of technology. He wants to know what is the difference between a RFC and a Internet Standard, and if your company should only use Internet Standards. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply): A. Once a protocol enhancement is thoroughly tested it stops being a RFC and becomes a Internet Standard. B. There is a one-to-one correspondence between RFCs and Internet Standards, *C. All protocols, even Internet Standards are indexed as RFCs. *D. Several RFCs may become one Internet Standard. *E. RFC 2600, STD 1 lists the current Internet protocol standards and the current status of all RFCs. Explanation: Internet Official Protocol standards, RFC 2600, STD 1 lists the current Internet protocol standards and the current status of all RFCs.
4. What do you know about these Internet protocols? (Choose all the true statements): *A. The Network Access layer includes LAN and WAN access methods including Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI, Frame Relay, Serial Lines and ATM. *B. The Network Access layer includes specifications for NICs, NIC drivers and connectors. C. The Internet layer is the host for the connection-oriented IP. *D. UDP is resides at the Transport layer and is up to 10 times faster than TCP. *E. UDP is best for small amounts of data that do not require an acknowledgement, such as broadcasts. Explanation: IP is a connectionless protocol. UDP is connectionless, while TCP is connection-oriented.
Internet Addressing 23
5. A diverse boatload of packets hit a destination computer. How are these packets sorted out? (Choose 2): A. Multiplexing B. De-multiplexing C. By port number D. By socket number
6. Your boss started out using SLIP to dial in to mainframe computers. You use PPP to dial into your ISP, Mindspring. He wants to know what is so great about PPP. You would say? (Choose all that apply): A. PPP is faster than SLIP, but SLIP is more reliable B. PPP supports multilink C. PPP encrypts passwords, while SLIP does not D. PPP supports IPX/SPX and NetBeui as well as TCP/IP, while SLIP only supports TCP/IP E. NT RAS Server uses PPP. There is no support for SLIP.
24 Chapter 2
5. A diverse boatload of packets hit a destination computer. How are these packets sorted out? (Choose 2): A. Multiplexing *B. De-multiplexing *C. By port number D. By socket number Explanation: A socket is a combination of a IP address, port and protocol, either TCP or UDP. Once a packet has made it to a computer, it is sorted or de-multiplexed by TCP or UDP port.
6. Your boss started out using SLIP to dial in to mainframe computers. You use PPP to dial into your ISP, Mindspring. He wants to know what is so great about PPP. You would say? (Choose all that apply): A. PPP is faster than SLIP, but SLIP is more reliable *B. PPP supports multilink *C. PPP encrypts passwords, while SLIP does not *D. PPP supports IPX/SPX and NetBeui as well as TCP/IP, while SLIP only supports TCP/IP E. NT RAS Server uses PPP. There is no support for SLIP. Explanation: PPP is faster and more reliable than SLIP. NT supports SLIP as a client only, while NT supports PPP as a client or a server (RAS). NT supports multilink where the bandwidth of two or more modems is shared. Multilink does not work with callback security.
Notes:
Internet Addressing 27
Chapter 3: Internet Addressing 1. Each user on the Internet must have? (Choose all that apply): A. A unique network address B. A unique host address C. a 32 byte address for IPv4 D. a 32 bit address for IPv4
2. Which of the following are valid conversions from binary to decimal or vice versa? A. 127.0.0.1
011111111.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1 11000000.10101010.0.1 C. 11111110
254
D. 10000000
128
E. 00000111
8
28 Chapter 3
1. Each user on the Internet must have? (Choose all that apply): A. A unique network address *B. A unique host address C. a 32 byte address for IPv4 *D. a 32 bit address for IPv4 Explanation: Each user must have a unique host address. Multiple users may share a network address. An IPv4 address is 4 bytes or 32 bits.
2. Which of the following are valid conversions from binary to decimal or vice versa? *A. 127.0.0.1
011111111.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.1 11000000.10101010.0.1 *C. 11111110
254
*D. 10000000
128
E. 00000111
8
Explanation: 192.168.0.1 is 11000000.10101000.0.1. 00000111 is 7.
Internet Addressing 29
3. Which of the following are valid class A, B or C IP addresses? A. 127.10.10.1 - Class B B. 126.0.0.1 - Class A C. 192.100.10.1 - Class B D. 225.10.7.3 - Class C
4. From the command line, you enter the following command, ping 127.10.10.10. What is the result? (Choose 2): A. You get back a reply from your own computer B. You would only get back a reply from your own computer if you entered ping 127.0.0.1 C. You would only get a reply back if there was a computer on the network with the IP address of 127.10.10.10 D. You could have also entered "ping loopback", and if you got a reply, it would show that your NIC driver has been correctly installed.
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3. Which of the following are valid class A, B or C IP addresses? A. 127.10.10.1 - Class B *B. 126.0.0.1 - Class A C. 192.100.10.1 - Class B D. 225.10.7.3 - Class C Explanation: In decimal, Class A addresses are from 1 to 126. Class B addresses are from 128 to 191 and Class C addresses are from 192 to 223. In bits, Class A addresses start with a 0, while Class B addresses start with a 10 and Class C networks start with a 110.
4. From the command line, you enter the following command, ping 127.10.10.10. What is the result? (Choose 2): *A. You get back a reply from your own computer B. You would only get back a reply from your own computer if you entered ping 127.0.0.1 C. You would only get a reply back if there was a computer on the network with the IP address of 127.10.10.10 *D. You could have also entered "ping loopback", and if you got a reply, it would show that your NIC driver has been correctly installed. Explanation: The whole 127.x.y.z network is reserved for diagnostics.
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5. Your company, California Fuel Cells has a zillion dollars in new funding and needs to ramp up its computer network. Access to the Internet is via a proxy server that does Network Address Translation, so internal addresses will not be exposed to the Internet. Which three address blocks are specifically reserved by ICANN for private networks? A. Class A - 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 B. Class B - 131.107.0.0 through 131.107.255.254 C. Class B - 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 D. Class C - 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 E. Class E - 224.224.224.0 through 224.224.224.255
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5. Your company, California Fuel Cells has a zillion dollars in new funding and needs to ramp up its computer network. Access to the Internet is via a proxy server that does Network Address Translation, so internal addresses will not be exposed to the Internet. Which three address blocks are specifically reserved by ICANN for private networks? *A. Class A - 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 B. Class B - 131.107.0.0 through 131.107.255.254 *C. Class B - 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 *D. Class C - 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255 E. Class E - 224.224.224.0 through 224.224.224.255 Explanation: Class A - 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 Class B - 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 Class C - 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
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6. Your are the CIO of California Fuel Cells, which has a zillion dollars in new funding and needs to ramp up its computer network. Access to the Internet is via a proxy server that does Network Address Translation, so internal addresses will not be exposed to the Internet. The CEO wants a short memo on the advantages and disadvantages of using reserved IP addressing. You would write? (Choose all that apply): A. Benefit: Conserves globally unique IP addresses B. Benefit: Immediate access to a large address space that is pre-approved and that prevents IP address clashes even when connected to the Internet C. Drawback: Reduced flexibility in using multiple individual IP addresses to connect to the Internet without renumbering IP addressing scheme. D. Drawback: From outside your Proxy server, your Extranet partners cannot ping your Internal IP addresses. E. Drawback: Your company might merge with another company that uses private network addresses and you would have to remove the address conflict.
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6. Your are the CIO of California Fuel Cells, which has a zillion dollars in new funding and needs to ramp up its computer network. Access to the Internet is via a proxy server that does Network Address Translation, so internal addresses will not be exposed to the Internet. The CEO wants a short memo on the advantages and disadvantages of using reserved IP addressing. You would write? (Choose all that apply): *A. Benefit: Conserves globally unique IP addresses *B. Benefit: Immediate access to a large address space that is pre-approved and that prevents IP address clashes even when connected to the Internet *C. Drawback: Reduced flexibility in using multiple individual IP addresses to connect to the Internet without renumbering IP addressing scheme. D. Drawback: From outside your Proxy server, your Extranet partners cannot ping your Internal IP addresses. *E. Drawback: Your company might merge with another company that uses private network addresses and you would have to remove the address conflict. Explanation: You will not be able to ping private IP addresses from outside that network. This is an excellent security feature to hide your internal network addresses from the Internet. Indeed, Internet routers will not forward IP packets destined for the reserved IP addresses: Class A - 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255 Class B - 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 Class C - 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
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7. You work at a large brewery, Carmel Beer with plants in 10 California cities. A colleague, Ralph Scissorhands, who has been working on the help desk for the last ten years asks why the company needs subnets, rather than just having all the computers on a one network. You would reply: (Choose 3): A. Subnetting tells routers which city we want to talk to. B. If we had 200 brewers trying to talk on one subnet, we could put half of them on another subnet so they would have better chance at not speaking at the same time. C. Subnetting allows us to create more addresses out of the addresses network address space that we have been assigned. D. Subnet routing allows numerous subnets to exist within a network so we can have a separate network for the various departments at Carmel Beer headquarters.
8. Which of the following are valid default subnet masks for the indicated network? (Choose all the correct answers): A. 50.0.0.0 network, 255.0.0.0 subnet mask. B. 100.0.0.0 network, 255.0.0.0 subnet mask C. 150.0.0.0 network, 255.255.0.0 subnet mask D. 200.0.0.0 network, 255.255.0.0 subnet mask E. 250.0.0.0 network, 255.255.255.0 subnet mask
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7. You work at a large brewery, Carmel Beer with plants in 10 California cities. A colleague, Ralph Scissorhands, who has been working on the help desk for the last ten years asks why the company needs subnets, rather than just having all the computers on a one network. You would reply: (Choose 3): *A. Subnetting tells routers which city we want to talk to. *B. If we had 200 brewers trying to talk on one subnet, we could put half of them on another subnet so they would have better chance at not speaking at the same time. C. Subnetting allows us to create more addresses out of the addresses network address space that we have been assigned. *D. Subnet routing allows numerous subnets to exist within a network so we can have a separate network for the various departments at Carmel Beer headquarters. Explanation: When we subnet a network, we lose some of the addresses.
8. Which of the following are valid default subnet masks for the indicated network? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. 50.0.0.0 network, 255.0.0.0 subnet mask. *B. 100.0.0.0 network, 255.0.0.0 subnet mask *C. 150.0.0.0 network, 255.255.0.0 subnet mask D. 200.0.0.0 network, 255.255.0.0 subnet mask E. 250.0.0.0 network, 255.255.255.0 subnet mask Explanation: Class A networks start with 1 to 126 and have a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 Class B networks start with 128 to 191 and have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 Class C networks start with 192 to 223 and have a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
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9. You are in Boca Raton. Your network is the 131.107.2.0 network. You are using a custom subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Your default gateway is 131.107.3.1. You are unable to communicate with the 131.107.4.200 server, through the 131.107.4.1 router on the 131.107.4.0 network in Miami . You should? A. Change the custom subnet mask back to the default. B. Change the IP address of the default gateway C. Ping the router in Miami to see if it is functional D. Ping another computer in Miami
10. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. What subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252
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9. You are in Boca Raton. Your network is the 131.107.2.0 network. You are using a custom subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Your default gateway is 131.107.3.1. You are unable to communicate with the 131.107.4.200 server, through the 131.107.4.1 router on the 131.107.4.0 network in Miami . You should? A. Change the custom subnet mask back to the default. *B. Change the IP address of the default gateway C. Ping the router in Miami to see if it is functional D. Ping another computer in Miami Explanation: The default gateway must be on the local subnet, which is 131.107.2.0, with the first three octets designating the network address. The address of the default gateway should be changed to 131.107.2.1.
10. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. What subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.255.192 *B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 E. 255.255.255.252 Explanation: The formula to determine the number of high order bits that we need to steal from our host address in order to subnet our network is (2 to what power) minus 2 is greater than or equal to the number of subnets we need. (The minus 2 is for no all 0's and no all 1's). 2^3 - 2 is >= 5 or 6 >=5. Therefore we need three bits for the subnets. The three bits have a value of 128 plus 64 plus 32 or 224.
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11. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. You determine that the subnet mask is 224. What are the subnets? A. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192, 200.25.25.224 B. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192 C. 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192 D. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.192
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11. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. You determine that the subnet mask is 224. What are the subnets? A. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192, 200.25.25.224 B. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192 *C. 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, 200.25.25.192 D. 200.25.25.0, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.192 Explanation: A subnet mask of 224 means that the three high order bits, 128, 64 and 32 are used for the subnet mask. The valid combinations of these three bits are 000 = This network - invalid. 001 = 32 010 = 64 011 = 96 100 =128 101 =160 110 =192 111 = subnet mask - invalid
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12. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. You determine that the subnet mask is 224. You determine that the subnets are 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, and 200.25.25.192. What are the valid IP addresses on the first subnet? A. 200.25.25.32 to 200.25.25.63 B. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.63 C. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.62 D. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.64
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12. Your company, Vermont Wines has small wineries in five cities. Each city has no more than 25 computers. For Vermont wines use, you wish to subnet a class C subnet address, 200.25.25.0. You determine that the subnet mask is 224. You determine that the subnets are 200.25.25.32, 200.25.25.64, 200.25.25.96, 200.25.25.128, 200.25.25.160, and 200.25.25.192. What are the valid IP addresses on the first subnet? A. 200.25.25.32 to 200.25.25.63 *B. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.63 C. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.62 D. 200.25.25.33 to 200.25.25.64 Explanation: 200.25.25.25.32 is invalid as it means this network, while 200.25.25.63 is invalid as it is the broadcast address. We can't have all zero's or all one's in the host portion (or the network portion) of the IP address.
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13. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you wish to subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0. What subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 E. 255.255.254.0
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13. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you wish to subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0. What subnet mask would you use? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 *D. 255.255.252.0 E. 255.255.254.0 Explanation: You need to cover the 1000 computers or host addresses while leaving as many bits available for network IDs as possible. 2^n minus 2 must be >= 1000 computers. The required power of 2 is 10, because 2^10 - 2 = 1022 which is >= 1000. Therefore we need 10 bits on the right hand side for host IDs. The last octet provides 8 bits and if we use the 1 bit and the 2 bit of the third octet for host IDs, then we are still left with 255-2-1 for the subnet mask , or with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0. Because we used 2 bits of 8 bits in the third octet for host ID, we have 6 bits left for subnet ID. The number of subnets (breweries) that we may have is 2^6 -2 or 62.
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14. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0 using a subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. What is the address of the first, second and last subnets? A. 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 .....150.5.248.0 B. 150.5.0.0, 150.5.4.0 .....150.5.248.0 C. 150.5.0.0, 150.5.4.0 .....150.5.252.0 D. 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 .....150.5.252.0
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14. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0 using a subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. What is the address of the first, second and last subnets? *A. 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 .....150.5.248.0 B. 150.5.0.0, 150.5.4.0 .....150.5.248.0 C. 150.5.0.0, 150.5.4.0 .....150.5.252.0 D. 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 .....150.5.252.0 Explanation: In the third octet we are using six bits for our network address because the 252 portion of our subnet mask excludes the first two bits. The fist bit of our network address is the third bit which has a value of 4. Therefore our first subnet is 150.5.4.0 and we increment by 4 for the next subnet, 150.5.8.0, and we go down 4 from our subnet mask of 252 to come up with our last subnet of 150.5.248.0. We exclude our subnet mask and we exclude 150.5.0.0 which is the unsubneted network.
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15. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0 using a subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. The addresses of the subnets are 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 through 150.5.248.0. What are the legal addresses in the first subnet? A. 150.5.4.0 to 150.5.7.255 B. 150.5.4.0 to 150.5.7.255 C. 150.5.4.1 to 150.5.7.254 D. 150.5.4.1 to 150.5.7.253
16. Your company, Angel Networks needs 2000 host addresses. Your ISP gives you a starting IP address of 204.196.30.1 and an ending address of 207.196.37.254. What supernet mask and CIDR notation should you use? A. 255.255.224.0 and 204.196.30.0/19 B. 255.255.240.0 and 204.196.30.0/20 C. 255.255.248.0 and 204.196.30.0/21 D. 255.255.252.0 and 204.196.30.0/22
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15. Your company, Bavarian Beer currently has large breweries in 30 cities in the US and Europe. Each city has no more than 1000 computers and will never have more than that amount, while the number of cites with Bavarian Beer breweries may double. For Bavarian Beer you subnet a class B network address, 150.5.0.0 using a subnet mask is 255.255.252.0. The addresses of the subnets are 150.5.4.0, 150.5.8.0 through 150.5.248.0. What are the legal addresses in the first subnet? A. 150.5.4.0 to 150.5.7.255 B. 150.5.4.0 to 150.5.7.255 *C. 150.5.4.1 to 150.5.7.254 D. 150.5.4.1 to 150.5.7.253 Explanation: All zeroes in the host portion, 150.5.4.0 means this network, and all ones in the host portion, 150.5.4.255 is the subnet broadcast address. So those numbers are not valid host IDs.
16. Your company, Angel Networks needs 2000 host addresses. Your ISP gives you a starting IP address of 204.196.30.1 and an ending address of 207.196.37.254. What supernet mask and CIDR notation should you use? A. 255.255.224.0 and 204.196.30.0/19 B. 255.255.240.0 and 204.196.30.0/20 *C. 255.255.248.0 and 204.196.30.0/21 D. 255.255.252.0 and 204.196.30.0/22 Explanation: From 255 subtract the difference if 37 and 30 in the last network (third) octet. This equals 255 - (37-30) = 248. Therefore our supernet mask is 255.255.248.0. We are using 21 bits for our subnet mask (8 + 8 + 5 bits), so our CIDR notation is 204.196.30.0/21
Notes:
Network Access Layer 51
Chapter 4: Network Access Layer 1. You must determine your Ethernet address (same as MAC or physical address). How could you do this? A. In Linux: ifconfig -a B. In NT: ipconfig /all C. In NT winipcfg /all D. In Win 9x: winipcfg /all E. In Linux: ipconfig -all
2. Protocol analyzers allow you to capture packets and analyze the data sent across a network. Which of the following are packet analyzers? (Choose 3): A. NT: Sniffer Basic/NetXray B. NT: Network Monitor and SMS C. Linux: Ethereal Network Analyzer D. Linux: Gnome and KDE
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1. You must determine your Ethernet address (same as MAC or physical address). How could you do this? *A. In Linux: ifconfig -a *B. In NT: ipconfig /all C. In NT winipcfg /all *D. In Win 9x: winipcfg /all E. In Linux: ipconfig -all Explanation: In Linux: ifconfig -a, In NT: ipconfig /all, In Win 9x: winipcfg /all
2. Protocol analyzers allow you to capture packets and analyze the data sent across a network. Which of the following are packet analyzers? (Choose 3): *A. NT: Sniffer Basic/NetXray *B. NT: Network Monitor and SMS *C. Linux: Ethereal Network Analyzer D. Linux: Gnome and KDE Explanation: Gnome and KDE are Linux GUI desktops.
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3. In either Etheral Network Analyzer (Linux) or in Sniffer Basic (NT) how do you start to record traffic? A. File - Begin B. Capture - Start C. Capture - Begin D. File - Start
4. How could you generate ARP traffic? A. ARP your partner's IP address B. Ping your partner's IP address C. Ping the loopback address D. ARP the loopback address
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3. In either Etheral Network Analyzer (Linux) or in Sniffer Basic (NT) how do you start to record traffic? A. File - Begin *B. Capture - Start C. Capture - Begin D. File - Start Explanation: From the Capture menu, select Start.
4. How could you generate ARP traffic? A. ARP your partner's IP address *B. Ping your partner's IP address C. Ping the loopback address D. ARP the loopback address Explanation: ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) operates under the hood to resolve an IP address to a hardware address. It is actually hardware addresses that are used to communicate between hosts. To view the ARP cache in Windows, type arp -a. To delete an arp entry, type arp -d [IP address]
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5. ARP resolves: A. A hardware address to an IP address B. An IP address to a hardware address C. A host name to an IP address D. A NetBIOS name to an IP address
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5. ARP resolves: A. A hardware address to an IP address *B. An IP address to a hardware address C. A host name to an IP address D. A NetBIOS name to an IP address Explanation: Reverse ARP resolves a hardware address to an IP address. ARP resolves an IP address to a hardware address. DNS resolves a host name to an IP address. Wins resolves a NetBIOS name to an IP address.
Notes:
Internet Layer 59
Chapter 5: Internet Layer 1. What is true about IP (Internet Protocol)? A. It provides addressing and routing information B. It is connection oriented C. It is connectionless D. It provides acknowledged communication E. It provides best effort delivery.
2. In order to trace the route of IP packets through routers to its destination, use the command: (Choose all that apply): A. In Linux: traceroute www.microsoft.com B. In Linux: traceroute 195.123.3.4 C. In NT: tracert www.king-air.com D. In Linux: tracert 187.2.3.4 E. In NT: traceroute 145.8.9.4
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1. What is true about IP (Internet Protocol)? *A. It provides addressing and routing information B. It is connection oriented *C. It is connectionless D. It provides acknowledged communication *E. It provides best effort delivery. Explanation: IP is a best-effort service that is connectionless, and not necessarily reliable. An IP packet has a network portion and a host portion. Based on this addressing information the packet is either delivered on the local subnet or routed to its destination.
2. In order to trace the route of IP packets through routers to its destination, use the command: (Choose all that apply): *A. In Linux: traceroute www.microsoft.com *B. In Linux: traceroute 195.123.3.4 *C. In NT: tracert www.king-air.com D. In Linux: tracert 187.2.3.4 E. In NT: traceroute 145.8.9.4 Explanation: The NT command is tracert, while the Linux command is traceroute. This is followed by either the IP address or host name.
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3. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true? (Choose all that apply): A. The version field will either be 0100 or 1010 for IP version 4 or IP version 6. B. The default Header Length is 1000 C. The Datagram Length includes the ethernet header D. The Fragment Offset indicates where in the packet the fragment belongs E. The Time to live may be a maximum of 255 seconds. Routers generally process the packet in far less than a second, so this field becomes a hop count.
4. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true about the protocol fields? (Choose all that apply): A. The protocol field defines the next protocol level that is to receive the packet. B. The protocol field includes reliability, precedence delay and throughput. C. If the protocol field is set to 00000001 then it is a ICMP packet D. If the protocol field is set to 00000110 then it is a TCP packet E. If the protocol field is set to 00010001 then it is a ARP packet
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3. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true? (Choose all that apply): *A. The version field will either be 0100 or 1010 for IP version 4 or IP version 6. B. The default Header Length is 1000 C. The Datagram Length includes the ethernet header *D. The Fragment Offset indicates where in the packet the fragment belongs *E. The Time to live may be a maximum of 255 seconds. Routers generally process the packet in far less than a second, so this field becomes a hop count. Explanation: Unless options are present, the default header length is 1001 or five 32bit words. The datagram length does not include the ethernet header.
4. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true about the protocol fields? (Choose all that apply): *A. The protocol field defines the next protocol level that is to receive the packet. B. The protocol field includes reliability, precedence delay and throughput. *C. If the protocol field is set to 00000001 then it is a ICMP packet *D. If the protocol field is set to 00000110 then it is a TCP packet E. If the protocol field is set to 00010001 then it is a ARP packet Explanation: If the protocol field is set to 00010001 then it is a UDP packet. The Service field includes reliability, precedence delay, and throughput.
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5. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true about the protocol fields? (Choose all that apply): A. The Options field, Error Reporting subfield provides a checksum of the IP header used for error detection. B. The 32 bit Source Address identifies the source system's IP address C. The 32 bit Destination Address identifies the IP address of the next hop. D. For highest security and reliability, in the Options field, specify strict source routing.
6. What is the reason for IPv6 and what are the benefits? (Choose all that apply): A. Reason: A new, higher bandwidth, fiber-based Internet II with separate IPv6 addresses B. Reason: IPv4 is running out of addresses C. Benefit: Simplified and more efficient D. Benefit: 4 trillion 32-bit addresses E. Benefit: Solves routing table problems
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5. An IP packet contains several important fields. Which of the following are true about the protocol fields? (Choose all that apply): A. The Options field, Error Reporting subfield provides a checksum of the IP header used for error detection. *B. The 32 bit Source Address identifies the source system's IP address C. The 32 bit Destination Address identifies the IP address of the next hop. D. For highest security and reliability, in the Options field, specify strict source routing. Explanation: The Header Checksum field provides a checksum of the IP header used for error detection. The 32 bit Destination Address identifies the IP address of the final destination. Strict source routing will fail if one of the routers along the path is down, whereas loose source routing is more reliable because alternate routers may be used.
6. What is the reason for IPv6 and what are the benefits? (Choose all that apply): A. Reason: A new, higher bandwidth, fiber-based Internet II with separate IPv6 addresses *B. Reason: IPv4 is running out of addresses *C. Benefit: Simplified and more efficient D. Benefit: 4 trillion 32-bit addresses *E. Benefit: Solves routing table problems Explanation: Benefit: 4 trillion 128-bit addresses.
Notes:
Transport Layer 67
Chapter 6: Transport Layer 1. What does the Transport layer of the Internet Architecture model provide? A. Addressing and routing B. Flow control C. NAT D. Network management
2. The two Transport layer protocols are? A. UDP B. IP C. ICMP D. IGMP E. TCP
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1. What does the Transport layer of the Internet Architecture model provide? A. Addressing and routing *B. Flow control C. NAT D. Network management Explanation: Addressing and routing are the domain of the Network layer.
2. The two Transport layer protocols are? *A. UDP B. IP C. ICMP D. IGMP *E. TCP Explanation: The two Transport layer protocols are TCP and UDP.
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3. What is true about TCP? A. It is connectionless B. It is reliable C. It includes a byte-stream service D. It is connection-oriented
4. Which of the following services are provided by TCP/IP? A. Session management B. Sequenced data delivery C. Unduplicated data D. Best effort delivery
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3. What is true about TCP? A. It is connectionless *B. It is reliable *C. It includes a byte-stream service *D. It is connection-oriented Explanation: The application at the higher layer of the protocol stack is responsible for interpreting the byte-stream contents. TCP is responsible for insuring that the stream of bytes flow uninterrupted and that missing bytes are replaced.
4. Which of the following services are provided by TCP/IP. *A. Session management *B. Sequenced data delivery *C. Unduplicated data D. Best effort delivery Explanation: TCP provides guaranteed delivery of data. TCP provides management of an established session between a source and destination host.
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5. Your boss says, "Young Grasshopper, if we are as one with the TCP header, we will understand the services provided by TCP". What is the most common TCP header option type? A. Maximum Segment Size (MSS) B. Source Port C. Destination Port D. Sequence Number E. Acknowledgement Number
6. Which of the following are true about a TCP header? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The Source Port and the Destination Port fields will accommodate 64K ports, therefore they are 16 bits long. B. The Source Port and the Destination Port fields will accommodate 1024 ports, therefore they are 10 bits long. C. The Sequence Number (32 bits) indicates the sequence number of the first data byte in the segment. D. For the Sequence Number (32 bits), if the SYN (synchronize) flag is on, the sequence number is set to all ones. E. For the Sequence Number (32 bits), if the SYN (synchronize) flag is on, the sequence number is set to a random number
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5. Your boss says, "Young Grasshopper, if we are as one with the TCP header, we will understand the services provided by TCP". What is the most common TCP header option type? *A. Maximum Segment Size (MSS) B. Source Port C. Destination Port D. Sequence Number E. Acknowledgement Number Explanation: While an ethernet packet may be up to 1514 bytes and a Token Ring packet may be up to 16k, many routers may only accommodate a maximum segment size of 512 bytes. The other possible choices are required fields in a TCP header.
6. Which of the following are true about a TCP header? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. The Source Port and the Destination Port fields will accommodate 64K ports, therefore they are 16 bits long. B. The Source Port and the Destination Port fields will accommodate 1024 ports, therefore they are 10 bits long. *C. The Sequence Number (32 bits) indicates the sequence number of the first data byte in the segment. D. For the Sequence Number (32 bits), if the SYN (synchronize) flag is on, the sequence number is set to all ones. *E. For the Sequence Number (32 bits), if the SYN (synchronize) flag is on, the sequence number is set to a random number Explanation: There are 64k TCP and UDP ports. The first 1024 or 1K ports are "wellknown" ports. For the Sequence Number (32 bits), if the SYN (synchronize) flag is on, the sequence number is set to a random number
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7. How does TCP know that it has received all the packets and that the packets have not been corrupted? (Choose 3): A. Not corrupted: CRC B. Not corrupted: Checksum C. All the packets: Acknowledgement Number D. All the packets: ACK
8. Which TCP flag would quickly bring down a connection and which TCP flag would bring down a TCP connection normally? A. URG, PSH B. FIN, RST C. SYN, FIN D. RST, FIN
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7. How does TCP know that it has received all the packets and that the packets have not been corrupted? (Choose 3): A. Not corrupted: CRC *B. Not corrupted: Checksum *C. All the packets: Acknowledgement Number *D. All the packets: ACK Explanation: The TCP packet uses a checksum to guard against data corruption. The ACK flag is set to on for acknowledgement of the receipt of packets up through the Acknowledgement Number with the sequence number of the next octet that the TCP entity expects to receive.
8. Which TCP flag would quickly bring down a connection and which TCP flag would bring down a TCP connection normally? A. URG, PSH B. FIN, RST C. SYN, FIN *D. RST, FIN Explanation: RST, (Reset) quickly brings down a connection and resets it. FIN (Finished) is the normal way to bring down a TCP connection.
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9. This TCP/IP header field contains the number of data octets (beginning with the one in the acknowledgement field.) that the entity is willing to accept. A. Window B. Frame C. Packet D. Max Segment Size E. Buffer
10. Which of the following applications use TCP? A. FTP B. TFTP C. SMTP D. TELNET E. SNMP
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9. This TCP/IP header field contains the number of data octets (beginning with the one in the acknowledgement field.) that the entity is willing to accept. *A. Window B. Frame C. Packet D. Max Segment Size E. Buffer Explanation: The Window (16 bits) is the flow control allocation in bytes.
10. Which of the following applications use TCP? *A. FTP B. TFTP *C. SMTP *D. TELNET E. SNMP Explanation: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) use UDP.
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11. Describe the function of the following three flags that establish and terminate a TCP connection: (Choose all the correct answers): A. SYN: Synchronizes the sequence numbers B. SYN: Synchronizes the port numbers C. FIN: Resets the TCP connection and quickly brings down the TCP connection D. FIN: Signals that no more data follows and closes the TCP connection E. ACK: Is only sent if there is an error
12. Which of the following statements describe the establishment of a TCP session: (Choose 2): A. Client SYN, Server SYN and ACK, Client ACK B. Client SYN, Server SYN, Client ACK, Server ACK C. Client "active open", server "passive open", client ACK. D. Client "passive open", server "active open", client ACK.
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11. Describe the function of the following three flags that establish and terminate a TCP connection: (Choose all the correct answers): *A. SYN: Synchronizes the sequence numbers B. SYN: Synchronizes the port numbers C. FIN: Resets the TCP connection and quickly brings down the TCP connection *D. FIN: Signals that no more data follows and closes the TCP connection E. ACK: Is only sent if there is an error Explanation: RST (which is not part of the TCP negotiation process) resets the TCP connection and quickly brings down the TCP connection. ACK identifies acknowledgement information. All packets are acknowledged.
12. Which of the following statements describe the establishment of a TCP session: (Choose 2): *A. Client SYN, Server SYN and ACK, Client ACK B. Client SYN, Server SYN, Client ACK, Server ACK *C. Client "active open", server "passive open", client ACK. D. Client "passive open", server "active open", client ACK. Explanation: The client performs an "active open" by setting the SYN flag, and setting the desired port number for the connection, and the Initial Sequence Number (a random number used for synchronization). The server performs a "passive open" by setting its own SYN flag, ISN, and ACKing the client's SYN. Finally the client returns a ACK.
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13. Which of the following statements are true concerning terminating a TCP connection? (Choose 2): A. Server FIN, client ACK and FIN, server ACK. B. Client FIN, server ACK and FIN, client ACK. C. The server performs an active close by activating the FIN flag, the client performs a passive close by sending and ACK and a FIN. Finally, the server sends an ACK D. The client performs an active close by activating the FIN flag, the server performs a passive close by sending and ACK and a FIN. Finally, the client sends an ACK E. The client performs a active close, the server performs a passive close and finally the client sends an ACK back to the server
14. The UDP header is smaller than the TCP header and contains the following fields: A. Source and destination TCP Port (2 fields) B. Source and destination UDP Port (2 fields) C. Source and Destination IP address (2 fields) D. Message Length E. CRC
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13. Which of the following statements are true concerning terminating a TCP connection? (Choose 2): *A. Server FIN, client ACK and FIN, server ACK. B. Client FIN, server ACK and FIN, client ACK. *C. The server performs an active close by activating the FIN flag, the client performs a passive close by sending and ACK and a FIN. Finally, the server sends an ACK D. The client performs an active close by activating the FIN flag, the server performs a passive close by sending and ACK and a FIN. Finally, the client sends an ACK E. The client performs a active close, the server performs a passive close and finally the client sends an ACK back to the server Explanation: Normally the FIN is created by an application, however the ACK is automatically generated by TCP.
14. The UDP header is smaller than the TCP header and contains the following fields: A. Source and destination TCP Port (2 fields) *B. Source and destination UDP Port (2 fields) C. Source and Destination IP address (2 fields) *D. Message Length E. CRC Explanation: The last field is the Checksum.
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15. Which of the following applications use UDP? (Choose 4): A. NFS B. DNS C. TFTP D. FTP E. SNMP
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15. Which of the following applications use UDP? (Choose 4): *A. NFS *B. DNS *C. TFTP D. FTP *E. SNMP Explanation: FTP uses TCP. NFS is Network File System for sharing Unix/Linux files.
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Chapter 7: Domain Name System 1. What is true about TCP and UDP ports? A. Ports 1 to 1023 are well-known port numbers B. Ports 1 to 1023 are registered port numbers C. Ports 1 to 1023 are reserved port numbers D. Ports 1024 to 65535 are registered port numbers E. Ports 1024 to 65535 are reserved port numbers
2. Why do we have a Domain Name System? A. Domain names are easier to remember than IP addresses B. Communication is quicker using Domain names C. Domain names are required for Internet connectivity D. Domain names enhance NetBIOS name resolution
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1. What is true about TCP and UDP ports? *A. Ports 1 to 1023 are well-known port numbers B. Ports 1 to 1023 are registered port numbers *C. Ports 1 to 1023 are reserved port numbers *D. Ports 1024 to 65535 are registered port numbers E. Ports 1024 to 65535 are reserved port numbers Explanation: ports 1 to 1023 as well-known/reserved port numbers. The remaining ports, up to 64K are available for custom applications.
2. Why do we have a Domain Name System? *A. Domain names are easier to remember than IP addresses B. Communication is quicker using Domain names C. Domain names are required for Internet connectivity D. Domain names enhance NetBIOS name resolution Explanation: Domain Names are easier to remember than IP addresses.
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3. What preceded DNS Servers for resolution of host names? A. NetBIOS Name Server B. lmhosts file C. hosts file D. broadcast E. NetBIOS name cache
4. In the hosts file, what is the format for the loopback address: A. 127.0.0.1 localhost B. 127.0.0.1 loopback C. localhost 127.0.0.1 D. loopback 127.0.0.1
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3. What preceded DNS Servers for resolution of host names? A. NetBIOS Name Server B. lmhosts file *C. hosts file D. broadcast E. NetBIOS name cache Explanation: The format of a hosts file is: IP address host name aliases 131.107.2.4 server1.home.tv
# comments
cableman # SatCom Server
4. In the hosts file, what is the format for the loopback address: *A. 127.0.0.1 localhost B. 127.0.0.1 loopback C. localhost 127.0.0.1 D. loopback 127.0.0.1 Explanation: The loopback address must be listed. 127.0.0.1 localhost
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5. What is the default location of the hosts and the lmhosts file in Windows NT? A. C:\winnt\system32 B. C:\winnt\drivers\etc C. C:\winnt\etc D. C:\winnt\system32\drivers\etc
6. Why was the DNS server invented? (Choose all that apply): A. The host file which contained the names of all hosts on the Internet was getting too big to transfer in a reasonable period of time. B. Updating the host file which contained the names of all hosts on the Internet was taking too long. C. DNS solved scalability problems by decentralizing updates and providing a distributed, hierarchical database. D. DNS automated host record updates
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5. What is the default location of the hosts and the lmhosts file in Windows NT? A. C:\winnt\system32 B. C:\winnt\drivers\etc C. C:\winnt\etc *D. C:\winnt\system32\drivers\etc Explanation: C:\winnt\system32\drivers\etc
6. Why was the DNS server invented? (Choose all that apply): *A. The host file which contained the names of all hosts on the Internet was getting too big to transfer in a reasonable period of time. *B. Updating the host file which contained the names of all hosts on the Internet was taking too long. *C. DNS solved scalability problems by decentralizing updates and providing a distributed, hierarchical database. D. DNS automated host record updates Explanation: DNS records must still be entered manually.
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7. What is the hierarchy of DNS domains? A. Top-level, second-level, third-level B. Root-level, second-level and bottom-level C. Root-level, top-level, and second-level D. Top-level, second-level, user-level
8. You wish to connect to the consumer subdirectory of the august directory of the sales server in the company secondary domain in the com top level domain, on port 8800. Which of the following URLs would be accurate? A. http://sales.company.com:8800/august/consumer B. http://august.company.com:8800/sales/consumer C. http://www.company.com:8800/sales/consumer D. http://sales.company.com/august/consumer:8800
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7. What is the hierarchy of DNS domains? A. Top-level, second-level, third-level B. Root-level, second-level and bottom-level *C. Root-level, top-level, and second-level D. Top-level, second-level, user-level Explanation: Root-level, top-level, and second-level. The root level is indicated by a dot, either explicit or understood at the end of a domain name. ICANN is responsible for DNS management.
8. You wish to connect to the consumer subdirectory of the august directory of the sales server in the company secondary domain in the com top level domain, on port 8800. Which of the following URLs would be accurate? *A. http://sales.company.com:8800/august/consumer B. http://august.company.com:8800/sales/consumer C. http://www.company.com:8800/sales/consumer D. http://sales.company.com/august/consumer:8800 Explanation: The url, http://sales.company.com:8800/august/consumer connects you to the sales server in the company.com domain on port 8800 and drills down to the august/consumer directory.
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9. What are the two key components of the Domain Name System? A. Namespace B. NetBIOS name server C. Name server D. Name resolver
10. What is true about DNS server types? A. The top servers are root servers. B. DNS records are directly entered into master servers C. DNS records are directly entered into primary servers D. Secondary or slave servers receive their DNS records via a zone transfer from a master server E. A caching-only server does not have any zone files, and it acts as a forwarding server.
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9. What are the two key components of the Domain Name System? A. Namespace B. NetBIOS name server *C. Name server *D. Name resolver Explanation: What are the two key components of the Domain Name System are the DNS name server and the name resolver.
10. What is true about DNS server types? *A. The top servers are root servers. B. DNS records are directly entered into master servers *C. DNS records are directly entered into primary servers *D. Secondary or slave servers receive their DNS records via a zone transfer from a master server *E. A caching-only server does not have any zone files, and it acts as a forwarding server. Explanation: A master server is one above a secondary server in the hierarchy. A master server may be a primary server or it can also be a secondary server. A caching only server does not have any DNS records entered directly as does a primary server, nor does it have any records entered by zone transfer as does a secondary server, instead it forwards the requests for name resolution and then saves the results so that subsequent requests can be resolved locally. A forwarding server accesses another server that is on the Internet to resolve name resolution requests that cannot be resolved locally. A forwarding server may be a primary, secondary or caching-only server.
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11. What are the benefits of having a secondary DNS server? (Choose all that apply): A. This is required for full DNS registration. B. Load-balancing C. Fault-tolerance D. Speed E. Accuracy
12. You work at Deellux light Systems with the domain name or deelux.com. Your computer worker1 sends a DNS request for www.murphy.ie to your configured DNS server, dns1.mindspring.com. Your name server cannot find www.murphy.ie in its cache. The request is next forwarded to which two name servers? A. Root then Murphy B. Com and then Root C. Deellux and then Murphy.ie D. Root and then IE E. Deellux and then Root
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11. What are the benefits of having a secondary DNS server? (Choose all that apply): *A. This is required for full DNS registration. *B. Load-balancing *C. Fault-tolerance *D. Speed E. Accuracy Explanation: The secondary server is only as accurate as the primary server, because the secondary server has a read-only copy of the primary servers database, and the secondary server's database of records may be slightly out of date for short periods of time until fully synchronized with the primary server.
12. You work at Deellux light Systems with the domain name or deelux.com. Your computer worker1 sends a DNS request for www.murphy.ie to your configured DNS server, dns1.mindspring.com. Your name server cannot find www.murphy.ie in its cache. The request is next forwarded to which two name servers? A. Root then Murphy B. Com and then Root C. Deellux and then Murphy.ie *D. Root and then IE E. Deellux and then Root Explanation: Dns1.mindspring.com would forward the request to a root DNS server, who would give dns1.mindspring.com the address of the ie DNS server. Then dns1.mindspring.com would talk to the ie DNS server that would give dns1.mindspring.com the address of the murphy.ie DNS server. Then dns1.mindspring.com would talk to murphy.ie to find the address of the www server there. Finally, this address would be returned to your computer, worker1.deelux.com.
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13. You have installed a primary DNS server on pogo.comic.com. Then on the same server you install an IIS 4.0 server with an alias of www.comic.com. On another server in your domain, mail.comic.com you install an Exchange server. What record types will you have on your DNS server, Pogo? A. A, MX, Hinfo, DNS, and Alias B. A, PTR, IN, DNS, Hinfo and Alias C. A, NS, SOA, CNAME and MX D. A, DNS, PRI, SOA, MAIL, CNAME
14. Your Linux DNS server is guide to.buckhead.com. Which are files used in the Berkley Internet Name Domain (BIND) implementation of DNS on this server? (Choose all that apply): A. named.ca B. var.named C. named.local D. buckhead.hosts and rev.buckhead.hosts E. named.boot
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13. You have installed a primary DNS server on pogo.comic.com. Then on the same server you install an IIS 4.0 server with an alias of www.comic.com. On another server in your domain, mail.comic.com you install an Exchange server. What record types will you have on your DNS server, Pogo? A. A, MX, Hinfo, DNS, and Alias B. A, PTR, IN, DNS, Hinfo and Alias *C. A, NS, SOA, CNAME and MX D. A, DNS, PRI, SOA, MAIL, CNAME Explanation: A = Address record NS = Name server SOA = Start Of Authority for a Primary DNS Server CNAME = Canonical name or alias for the www server MX = Mail Exchanger record
14. Your Linux DNS server is guide to.buckhead.com. Which are files used in the Berkley Internet Name Domain (BIND) implementation of DNS on this server? (Choose all that apply): *A. named.ca B. var.named *C. named.local *D. buckhead.hosts and rev.buckhead.hosts *E. named.boot Explanation: These files set up the DNS server.
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15. Which Linux DNS server file holds information on the root name servers? A. named.ca B. cache.named C. hosts.local D. local.hosts E. boot.txt
16. You have just installed a Linux DNS server, rudolf.coldbay.com. You can ping other computers, such as donner.coldbay.com, but you cannot successfully ping localhost. What file is missing or messed up? A. /etc/named.local B. /sbin/coldbay.hosts C. /home/coldbay.hosts D. /var/named/named.local
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15. Which Linux DNS server file holds information on the root name servers? *A. named.ca B. cache.named C. hosts.local D. local.hosts E. boot.txt Explanation: named.ca is the cache file with the names of the root DNS servers.
16. You have just installed a Linux DNS server, rudolf.coldbay.com. You can ping other computers, such as donner.coldbay.com, but you cannot successfully ping localhost. What file is missing or messed up? A. /etc/named.local B. /sbin/coldbay.hosts C. /home/coldbay.hosts *D. /var/named/named.local Explanation: The /var/named/named.local file contains the loopback address
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17. You have just installed a Linux DNS server, rudolf.coldbay.com. You can ping other computers, such as donner.coldbay.com, but you cannot ping blitzer-jr.coldbay.com which is a new computer. What do you need to do? A. Add an A record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/rev.coldbay.hosts file B. Add an A record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/coldbay.hosts file C. Add an CNAME record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/coldbay.hosts file D. Add an CNAME record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/rev.coldbay.hosts file
18. Which of the following is true concerning Bind DNS files for monstertruck.com? (Choose all that apply): A. The following files are located in the /var/named subdirectory: named.ca, named.local, monstertruck.hosts, rev.monstertruck.hosts and named.conf B. The following files are located in the /var/named subdirectory: named.ca, named.local, monstertruck.hosts, and rev.monstertruck.hosts C. named.conf is used to start the DNS server. D. The following DNS server file is located in the /etc subdirectory: named.conf E. The DNS client file is resolve.conf and it is located in /etc.
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17. You have just installed a Linux DNS server, rudolf.coldbay.com. You can ping other computers, such as donner.coldbay.com, but you cannot ping blitzer-jr.coldbay.com which is a new computer. What do you need to do? A. Add an A record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/rev.coldbay.hosts file *B. Add an A record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/coldbay.hosts file C. Add an CNAME record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/coldbay.hosts file D. Add an CNAME record for blitzer-jr to the var/named/rev.coldbay.hosts file Explanation: Add an A (Address) record for the new computer, blitzer-jr to the var/named/coldbay.hosts file
18. Which of the following is true concerning Bind DNS files for monstertruck.com? (Choose all that apply): A. The following files are located in the /var/named subdirectory: named.ca, named.local, monstertruck.hosts, rev.monstertruck.hosts and named.conf *B. The following files are located in the /var/named subdirectory: named.ca, named.local, monstertruck.hosts, and rev.monstertruck.hosts *C. named.conf is used to start the DNS server. *D. The following DNS server file is located in the /etc subdirectory: named.conf *E. The DNS client file is resolve.conf and it is located in /etc.
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19. You are using DHCP. How can you tell which DNS server you are using, if any, on your NT workstation? A. ipconfig B. ifconfig C. ipconfig /all D. winipconfg
20. Where would you go to install a DNS server in NT? A. Right click on Network Neighborhood. Select Properties. Select Services. Select add. Highlight Microsoft DNS Server and click OK B. Right click on Network Neighborhood. Select Protocols. Select add. Highlight Microsoft DNS Server and click OK C. In Control panel, select Add/Remove Programs - have disk and select the DNS subdirectory of the i386 directory on your NT Server CD. D. In Control panel, select Add/Remove Software - have disk and select the DNS subdirectory of the i386 directory on your NT Server CD.
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19. You are using DHCP. How can you tell which DNS server you are using, if any, on your NT workstation? A. ipconfig B. ifconfig *C. ipconfig /all D. winipconfg Explanation: Ipconfig /all will give you DNS server information.
20. Where would you go to install a DNS server in NT? *A. Right click on Network Neighborhood. Select Properties. Select Services. Select add. Highlight Microsoft DNS Server and click OK B. Right click on Network Neighborhood. Select Protocols. Select add. Highlight Microsoft DNS Server and click OK C. In Control panel, select Add/Remove Programs - have disk and select the DNS subdirectory of the i386 directory on your NT Server CD. D. In Control panel, select Add/Remove Software - have disk and select the DNS subdirectory of the i386 directory on your NT Server CD. Explanation: To install DNS, right click on Network Neighborhood. Select Properties. Select Services. Select Add. Highlight Microsoft DNS Server and click OK
Notes:
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Chapter 8: Address and Parameter Allocation for TCP/IP Hosts 1. What is true about BootP? (Choose all that are true): A. It preceded DHCP B. It was preceded by RARP which only assigned IP addresses and could not pass packets through a router. C. It is used by diskless workstations to receive an IP address and other configuration parameters. D. It is a client/server program E. Most diskless-workstation/bootp clients obtain their OS via TFTP
2. What is true about DHCP? (Choose all that apply): A. DHCP has finite address leases so addresses may be recycled. B. DHCP can traverse routers that are RFC 1542 compliant. C. DHCP has a large vendor-specific data field for more configuration options. D. DHCP can traverse routers that are not RFC 1542 compliant by use of DHCP relay agents
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1. What is true about BootP? (Choose all that are true): *A. It preceded DHCP *B. It was preceded by RARP which only assigned IP addresses and could not pass packets through a router. *C. It is used by diskless workstations to receive an IP address and other configuration parameters. *D. It is a client/server program *E. Most diskless-workstation/bootp clients obtain their OS via TFTP Explanation: All are true.
2. What is true about DHCP? (Choose all that apply): *A. DHCP has finite address leases so addresses may be recycled. *B. DHCP can traverse routers that are RFC 1542 compliant. *C. DHCP has a large vendor-specific data field for more configuration options. *D. DHCP can traverse routers that are not RFC 1542 compliant by use of DHCP relay agents Explanation: Bootp does not have address leases. Bootp allows only 64 bytes for vendor specific options data.
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3. A DHCP client sends a(n) ____________ packet. It may receive multiple _______. It sends a _________ message to the first DHCP server. That DHCP server sends a(n) _____________ packet. A. Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement B. Offer, request, discover, acknowledgement C. Discover, offers, request, acknowledgement D. Request, discover, offer, acknowledgement
4. In the case where there are multiple DHCP servers and a particular client should use a particular DHCP server, you would create a ________ ________ on that DHCP server using the __________ address to be assigned to a particular client that has a particular name and a unique identifier that is the ___________ address. (Fill in the blanks) A. Client reservation, IP, hardware B. Client reservation, hardware, IP C. Host Reservation, IP, hardware D. Server Reservation, hardware. IP
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3. A DHCP client sends a(n) ____________ packet. It may receive multiple _______. It sends a _________ message to the first DHCP server. That DHCP server sends a(n) _____________ packet. A. Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement B. Offer, request, discover, acknowledgement *C. Discover, offers, request, acknowledgement D. Request, discover, offer, acknowledgement Explanation: Discover, offers, request, acknowledgement
4. In the case where there are multiple DHCP servers and a particular client should use a particular DHCP server, you would create a ________ ________ on that DHCP server using the __________ address to be assigned to a particular client that has a particular name and a unique identifier that is the ___________ address. (Fill in the blanks) *A. Client reservation, IP, hardware B. Client reservation, hardware, IP C. Host Reservation, IP, hardware D. Server Reservation, hardware. IP Explanation: In the case where there are multiple DHCP servers and a particular client should use a particular DHCP server, you would create a client reservation on that DHCP server using the IP address to be assigned to a particular client that has a particular name and a unique identifier that is the hardware/NIC/MAC address.
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5. When a DHCP client first broadcasts for a DHCP server it sets its IP address to _______ and the DHCP server knows how to talk back to the client based on the __________. A. 255.255.255.255, the client's hardware address B. 255.255.255.255, the server's hardware address C. 0.0.0.0, the server's hardware address D. 0.0.0.0, the client's hardware address
6. The DHCP header contains the Client IP Address, Your IP Address and the Server IP Address fields. What IP address could be in the Your IP Address field? (Choose all that apply): A. Client IP address B. Server IP address C. RFC 1542-compliant router address D. DHCP relay agent address
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5. When a DHCP client first broadcasts for a DHCP server it sets its IP address to _______ and the DHCP server knows how to talk back to the client based on the __________. A. 255.255.255.255, the client's hardware address B. 255.255.255.255, the server's hardware address C. 0.0.0.0, the server's hardware address *D. 0.0.0.0, the client's hardware address Explanation: When a DHCP client first broadcasts for a DHCP server it sets its IP address to 0.0.0.0 because it doesn't have one yet The DHCP server knows how to talk back to the client based on the client's hardware address.
6. The DHCP header contains the Client IP Address, Your IP Address and the Server IP Address fields. What IP address could be in the Your IP Address field? (Choose all that apply): *A. Client IP address B. Server IP address C. RFC 1542-compliant router address D. DHCP relay agent address Explanation: Your IP address is set by the server to be the clients IP address.
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7. Which DHCP information may be included in the Options field of the DHCP header? (Choose all the correct answers): A. Gateway IP Address B. Client Hardware Address C. Server Host Name D. Wins Server Address E. DNS Server Address
8. For a 10 MB ethernet client the DHCP header field of Hardware Type (of the NIC) is set to _________, and the Hardware length (the length of the hardware address) is set to _______. A. 1, 6 B. 6, 6 C. 1, 5 D. 999, 5
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7. Which DHCP information may be included in the Options field of the DHCP header? (Choose all the correct answers): A. Gateway IP Address B. Client Hardware Address C. Server Host Name *D. Wins Server Address *E. DNS Server Address Explanation: Gateway IP Address, Client Hardware Address, and Server Host Name have their own dedicated fields in the DHCP header.
8. For a 10 MB ethernet client the DHCP header field of Hardware Type (of the NIC) is set to _________, and the Hardware length (the length of the hardware address) is set to _______. *A. 1, 6 B. 6, 6 C. 1, 5 D. 999, 5 Explanation: For a 10 MB ethernet client, the DHCP header field of Hardware Type (of the NIC) is set to 1, and the Hardware Length field (the length of the hardware address) is set to 6.
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9. Which are true about the following Linux commands used to create a DHCP server? (Choose 3): A. rpm -qa | grep dhcp - checks to see if dhcp is installed B. rpm -qa | grep dhcp - installs dhcp C. touch /etc/dhcpd.conf - creates an empty file D. touch /etc/dhcpd.conf - allows you to edit an existing file E. touch /var/state/dhcp/dhcpd.leases - creates a file that must exist before the DHCP server can start.
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9. Which are true about the following Linux commands used to create a DHCP server? (Choose 3): *A. rpm -qa | grep dhcp - checks to see if dhcp is installed B. rpm -qa | grep dhcp - installs dhcp *C. touch /etc/dhcpd.conf - creates an empty file D. touch /etc/dhcpd.conf - allows you to edit an existing file *E. touch /var/state/dhcp/dhcpd.leases - creates a file that must exist before the DHCP server can start. Explanation: rpm -i dhcp-2.0-3.i386.rpm dhcpcd-1.3.17p15-2.1386.rpm - installs DHCP
Notes:
Unit 2: Advanced TCP/IP Concepts and Practices
Unit 2: Advanced TCP/IP Concepts and Practices
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Chapter 1: Routing 1. Routing occurs at the OSI/RM ________ layer? A. Physical B. Datalink C. Network D. Transport
2. Which type of routing requires a router? A. Direct B. Indirect C. Interior D. Exterior
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1. Routing occurs at the OSI/RM ________ layer? A. Physical B. Datalink *C. Network D. Transport Explanation: Routing occurs at the OSI/RM network layer.
2. Which type of routing requires a router? A. Direct *B. Indirect C. Interior D. Exterior Explanation: In direct routing the two computers on a subnet communicate directly without the aid of a router.
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3. You wish to add static routes to a Windows NT computer that is configured as a router. Which of the following statements are true? A. Routing is enabled on a NT Server by using multiple network cards connected to multiple networks, and enabling IP forwarding. B. If static routes are used, entries only need to be made for networks to which the router does not have a direct connection. C. To add a static route to the 134.23.0.0 network , use the "route add 134.23.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 157.23.23.23" D. In order to see the routing table, type "route" by itself.
4. Your Linux router is Snoppy with multiple IP addresses including 172.23.4.1 and 172.23.5.1. In Linux to add a route to the 172.60.12.0 network with a netmask of 255.255.255.0 using a router interface of 172.23.4.1 you have these options: (Choose 2): A. Type "route add -net 172.60.12.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 172.23.4.1" B. Type "route add 134.23.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 157.23.23.23" C. Use Linuxconf D. Type "route add 172.60.12.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 172.23.4.1"
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3. You wish to add static routes to a Windows NT computer that is configured as a router. Which of the following statements are true? *A. Routing is enabled on a NT Server by using multiple network cards connected to multiple networks, and enabling IP forwarding. *B. If static routes are used, entries only need to be made for networks to which the router does not have a direct connection. *C. To add a static route to the 134.23.0.0 network , use the "route add 134.23.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 157.23.23.23" D. In order to see the routing table, type "route" by itself. Explanation: In order to see the routing table, type "route print."
4. Your Linux router is Snoppy with multiple IP addresses including 172.23.4.1 and 172.23.5.1. In Linux to add a route to the 172.60.12.0 network with a netmask of 255.255.255.0 using a router interface of 172.23.4.1 you have these options: (Choose 2): *A. Type "route add -net 172.60.12.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 172.23.4.1" B. Type "route add 134.23.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 157.23.23.23" *C. Use Linuxconf D. Type "route add 172.60.12.0 mask 255.255.255.0 gw 172.23.4.1" Explanation: Linuxconf may be used or "route add -net 172.60.12.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 172.23.4.1"
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5. Within your LAN you would be most likely to use which of the following protocols? A. RIP and OSPF B. EGP and BGP C. Exterior routing protocols D. Interior routing protocols
6. If routers belong to different autonomous systems and they exchange information, then they are considered to be __________________? A. Interior gateways B. Exterior gateways C. RIP routers D. OSPF routers
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5. Within your LAN you would be most likely to use which of the following protocols? *A. RIP and OSPF B. EGP and BGP C. Exterior routing protocols *D. Interior routing protocols Explanation: EGP and BGP are exterior routing protocols used outside an organizations network.
6. If routers belong to different autonomous systems and they exchange information, then they are considered to be __________________? A. Interior gateways *B. Exterior gateways C. RIP routers D. OSPF routers Explanation: If routers belong to different autonomous systems and they exchange information, then they are considered to be exterior gateways and they would use protocols such as EGP and BGP.
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7. How does RIP work? (Choose all that apply): A. It determines the route it should use to a remote network based on the smallest number of hops. B. It broadcasts routing tables every 30 seconds creating much network traffic C. It provides authenticated exchanges D. Updates occur only when necessary E. It is easy to implement and manage on small networks. It is a fast, efficient protocol.
8. Your small Wan uses RIPv1 you boss wants to know if there would be much benefit in upgrading to RIPv2. You would correctly state? (Choose 2): A. RIPv2 supports VPN B. RIPv2 is an exterior routing protocol as well as an interior routing protocol. C. RIPv2 supports multicasting to conserve bandwidth. D. RIPv2 enables a single router to run multiple instances of RIP
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7. How does RIP work? (Choose all that apply): *A. It determines the route it should use to a remote network based on the smallest number of hops. *B. It broadcasts routing tables every 30 seconds creating much network traffic C. It provides authenticated exchanges D. Updates occur only when necessary *E. It is easy to implement and manage on small networks. It is a fast, efficient protocol. Explanation: RIP is a distance vector protocol that determines the best route to a remote network based on the smallest number of hops by sharing routing tables between routers by means of broadcast.
8. Your small Wan uses RIPv1 you boss wants to know if there would be much benefit in upgrading to RIPv2. You would correctly state? (Choose 2): A. RIPv2 supports VPN B. RIPv2 is an exterior routing protocol as well as an interior routing protocol. *C. RIPv2 supports multicasting to conserve bandwidth. *D. RIPv2 enables a single router to run multiple instances of RIP Explanation: RIPv2 conserves bandwidth by multicasting.
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9. Your network has grown to 100 servers. What are some disadvantages of continuing to use RIP? A. 30 second RIP broadcasts of the entire routing table create a great deal of traffic. B. RIP can require a lengthy convergence time for all network router to receive information. C. RIP requires lengthy configuration D. If a link between two routers is broken, a RIP router can count to infinity/16 hops and consider a network unreachable.
10. How does RIP address the count-to-infinity problem? A. Event Horizon B. Split Horizon C. Poison Reverse D. Double Trouble
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9. Your network has grown to 100 servers. What are some disadvantages of continuing to use RIP? *A. 30 second RIP broadcasts of the entire routing table create a great deal of traffic. *B. RIP can require a lengthy convergence time for all network router to receive information. C. RIP requires lengthy configuration *D. If a link between two routers is broken, a RIP router can count to infinity/16 hops and consider a network unreachable. Explanation: RIP is easy to configure.
10. How does RIP address the count-to-infinity problem? A. Event Horizon *B. Split Horizon *C. Poison Reverse D. Double Trouble Explanation: In split horizon routers do not broadcast all destination networks. Poison reverse, in which routers advertise networks as unreachable (16 hops). If split horizon is disabled, poison reverse is automatically enabled.
Routing 09
11. RIP traffic has saturated your network. What advantages would be gained by upgrading to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose all the correct answers): A. OSPF supports updates based on when changes are made, rather than fixed intervals. B. OSPF supports just sending the changed portion of the routing table C. OSPF eliminates the count to infinity to problem, supports variable length subnetting, and can choose among multiple routes based on high bit rate, security or transmission costs. D. OSPF supports authenticated exchanges, network areas and defined route support E. OSPF allows rapid convergence, reduces network traffic, and provides load balancing.
12. What is true about Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) and Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose all the correct answers): A. They are used on the Internet Backbone B. EGP is newer C. They are distance-vector protocols D. They are link-state protocols E. They are path-vector protocols
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11. RIP traffic has saturated your network. What advantages would be gained by upgrading to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. OSPF supports updates based on when changes are made, rather than fixed intervals. *B. OSPF supports just sending the changed portion of the routing table *C. OSPF eliminates the count to infinity to problem, supports variable length subnetting, and can choose among multiple routes based on high bit rate, security or transmission costs. *D. OSPF supports authenticated exchanges, network areas and defined route support *E. OSPF allows rapid convergence, reduces network traffic, and provides load balancing. Explanation: All of the above answers are true
12. What is true about Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) and Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. They are used on the Internet Backbone B. EGP is newer C. They are distance-vector protocols D. They are link-state protocols *E. They are path-vector protocols Explanation: BGP is newer. They are path-vector protocols that list the autonomous systems used to reach a particular destination. RIP and is distance vector protocol, while OSPF is a link-state protocol.
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13. The Internet backbone is being updated from EGP to BGPv4. What are the advantages? (Choose 3): A. BGPv4 only supports classful routing B. BGPv4 supports CIDR C. BPGv4 can detect and avoid loops D. BPGv4 can deny paths that do not pass through its autonomous system E. BPGv4 can deny paths that have already passed through its autonomous system
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13. The Internet backbone is being updated from EGP to BGPv4. What are the advantages? (Choose 3): A. BGPv4 only supports classful routing *B. BGPv4 supports CIDR *C. BPGv4 can detect and avoid loops D. BPGv4 can deny paths that do not pass through its autonomous system *E. BPGv4 can deny paths that have already passed through its autonomous system Explanation: BGPv4 supports the routing table aggregation procedures of CIDR.
Notes:
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Chapter 2: TCP/IP Troubleshooting Tools 1. You are the developer of a new high speed wireless protocol. What file would be modified in Unix/Linux and what file would be modified in NT so that this protocol would be supported? A. Linux/Unix: /home/httpd/protocol B. Linux/Unix: /etc/protocols C. NT: C:/winnt/system32/drivers/etc/protocol D. NT: C:/winnt/etc/protocols
2. You are the developer of a new Global Positioning Service (GPS) service for NT and daemon for Linux laptops that use a cellular modem. What file would be modified in Linux and what file would be modified in NT so that this NT service and Linux daemon would be supported? (Choose 2): A. Linux: /etc/services B. Linux: /etc/daemons C. NT: winnt\system32\drivers\etc\services D. NT: winnt/system32/drivers/etc/daemons
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1. You are the developer of a new high speed wireless protocol. What file would be modified in Unix/Linux and what file would be modified in NT so that this protocol would be supported? A. Linux/Unix: /home/httpd/protocol *B. Linux/Unix: /etc/protocols *C. NT: C:/winnt/system32/drivers/etc/protocol D. NT: C:/winnt/etc/protocols Explanation: A sample entry is: mp 1025 wireless # high-speed mobile protocol for wireless networks on port 1025
2. You are the developer of a new Global Positioning Service (GPS) service for NT and daemon for Linux laptops that use a cellular modem. What file would be modified in Linux and what file would be modified in NT so that this NT service and Linux daemon would be supported? (Choose 2): *A. Linux: /etc/services B. Linux: /etc/daemons *C. NT: winnt\system32\drivers\etc\services D. NT: winnt/system32/drivers/etc/daemons Explanation: It is the services file in NT or Linux
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3. How do we normally get a service to start automatically in NT and a daemon to start automatically in Linux? (Choose 3): A. NT: Control Panel - Services B. NT: Control Panel - Devices C. Linux: Edit the inetd.conf file to enable a service D. Linux: From a terminal, type ntsysv to bring up that application and choose the daemons to start on computer boot. E. NT: Use the scheduler service
4. What is true about Internet Control Messages Protocol (ICMP) messages: (Choose 4): A. They are on the Transport Layer of the OSI model B. Ping uses ICMP C. Source-Quench is a ICMP message that means slow down your datatransmission rate D. Destination Unreachable is an ICMP message E. ICMP messages that report errors always include the header and the first 64 bytes of the datagram that is causing the problem.
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3. How do we normally get a service to start automatically in NT and a daemon to start automatically in Linux? (Choose 3): *A. NT: Control Panel - Services B. NT: Control Panel - Devices *C. Linux: Edit the inetd.conf file to enable a service *D. Linux: From a terminal, type ntsysv to bring up that application and choose the daemons to start on computer boot. E. NT: Use the scheduler service Explanation: NTSYSV gives you a menu of daemons to start automatically.
4. What is true about Internet Control Messages Protocol (ICMP) messages: (Choose 4): A. They are on the Transport Layer of the OSI model *B. Ping uses ICMP *C. Source-Quench is a ICMP message that means slow down your data-transmission rate *D. Destination Unreachable is an ICMP message *E. ICMP messages that report errors always include the header and the first 64 bytes of the datagram that is causing the problem. Explanation: ICMP is on the Network layer of the OSI model.
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5. Which of the following commands are most useful for troubleshooting? (Choose 3): A. whoami B. whereis C. ping D. traceroute or tracert E. netstat
6. What is the Linux equivalent of the default NT ping and what is the NT equivalent of the default Linux ping. A. ping -c 4 and ping -t B. ping -t and ping -c 4 C. ping -f and ping -c D. ping -c and ping -f
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5. Which of the following commands are most useful for troubleshooting? (Choose 3): A. whoami B. whereis *C. ping *D. traceroute or tracert *E. netstat Explanation: Use the following commands for general network troubleshooting; ping, tracert or traceroute, and netstat.
6. What is the Linux equivalent of the default NT ping and what is the NT equivalent of the default Linux ping. *A. ping -c 4 and ping -t B. ping -t and ping -c 4 C. ping -f and ping -c D. ping -c and ping -f Explanation: By default NT pings four times (ping -c 4 in Linux or ping -c 4 in NT). By default, Linux pings continuously (ping -t). Flood ping, ping -f in Linux is an interesting option with 100 pings per second. An interesting NT option is ping -A ip_address which will attempt to resolve the host name as well as ping the IP address.
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7. You are taking a long time to get to your corporate web site www.hifive.com at 143.42.32.7 from the beach at Canjun, Mexico. To see which router may be slow, you could: (Choose all that apply): A. From NT: tracert 143.42.32.7 B. From NT: tracert www.hifive.com C. From Linux: tracert 143.42.32.7 D. From Linux: tracert www.hifive.com
8. You want to see if the Jedi server is listening on port 1000, and you want to see the routing table for that server and the number of bytes sent and received. You would use the following commands: (Choose 3): A. nbtstat B. arp -a C. netstat -a D. netstat -r E. netstat -e
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7. You are taking a long time to get to your corporate web site www.hifive.com at 143.42.32.7 from the beach at Canjun, Mexico. To see which router may be slow, you could: (Choose all that apply): *A. From NT: tracert 143.42.32.7 *B. From NT: tracert www.hifive.com C. From Linux: tracert 143.42.32.7 D. From Linux: tracert www.hifive.com Explanation: The command in Linux is traceroute.
8. You want to see if the Jedi server is listening on port 1000, and you want to see the routing table for that server and the number of bytes sent and received. You would use the following commands: (Choose 3): A. nbtstat B. arp -a *C. netstat -a *D. netstat -r *E. netstat -e Explanation: netstat could do it all.
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9. Which of the following TCP/IP commands can be used to troubleshoot name and address resolution? (Choose all that apply): A. nslookup to troubleshoot Wins servers B. arp to troubleshoot IP address to hardware address resolution. C. hostname to find the name of the local host. D. ipconfig in NT and ifconfig in Unix/Linux to look at the TCP/IP configuration of the local host E. winconfig in win98
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9. Which of the following TCP/IP commands can be used to troubleshoot name and address resolution? (Choose all that apply): A. nslookup to troubleshoot Wins servers *B. arp to troubleshoot IP address to hardware address resolution. *C. hostname to find the name of the local host. *D. ipconfig in NT and ifconfig in Unix/Linux to look at the TCP/IP configuration of the local host E. winconfig in win98 Explanation: nslookup troubleshoots DNS servers. Win9x uses winipcfg.
Notes:
Troubleshooting TCP/IP Networks 147
Chapter 3: Troubleshooting TCP/IP Networks 1. Who usually is the first to notice that a client/server network is performing poorly? A. Administrator B. Network Engineer C. Webmaster D. User
2. Server2.twintower.com has an IP address of 131.109.2.80. has a hardware address of 23-23-FE-FF-80-AB To dynamically add an entry to the arp cache, then view all of the arp cache, then manually add an entry and then delete an entry, the commands would be: (Choose all that are correct): A. ping 131.107.2.80 adds a dynamic entry to the arp cache B. arp -a 131.109.2.80 23-23-FE-FF-80-AB manually adds a static entry C. arp -s shows the arp cache D. arp -d 131.109.2.80 manually deletes an arp entry
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1. Who usually is the first to notice that a client/server network is performing poorly? A. Administrator B. Network Engineer C. Webmaster *D. User Explanation: Typically the end user is the first to notice that a network is performing poorly. For that reason, an administrator should pay attention to end user complaints.
2. Server2.twintower.com has an IP address of 131.109.2.80. has a hardware address of 23-23-FE-FF-80-AB To dynamically add an entry to the arp cache, then view all of the arp cache, then manually add an entry and then delete an entry, the commands would be: (Choose all that are correct): *A. ping 131.107.2.80 adds a dynamic entry to the arp cache B. arp -a 131.109.2.80 23-23-FE-FF-80-AB manually adds a static entry C. arp -s shows the arp cache *D. arp -d 131.109.2.80 manually deletes an arp entry Explanation: Arp -a allows you to view all the arp entries. Arp -s allows you to enter a static entry.
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3. The key to maintaining consistent network performance is the timely identification of ____________. (Fill in the blank): A. baselines B. viruses C. excessive paging D. bottlenecks
4. Which of the following could be a bottleneck? (Choose all that apply): A. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on which the client portion of the application runs B. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on which the server portion of the application runs C. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on the server node that the application needs to access. D. Excessive traffic or limited bandwidth on the LAN, WAN, or NIC of any portion of a three-tire application E. Poor client/server application architecture or poor application coding.
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3. The key to maintaining consistent network performance is the timely identification of ____________. (Fill in the blank): A. baselines B. viruses C. excessive paging *D. bottlenecks Explanation: The key to maintaining consistent network performance is the timely identification of bottlenecks.
4. Which of the following could be a bottleneck? (Choose all that apply): *A. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on which the client portion of the application runs *B. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on which the server portion of the application runs *C. The CPU, memory, or disk subsystem on the server node that the application needs to access. *D. Excessive traffic or limited bandwidth on the LAN, WAN, or NIC of any portion of a three-tire application *E. Poor client/server application architecture or poor application coding. Explanation: All the above are potential bottlenecks
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5. Which of the following are the leading hardware bottlenecks? (Choose 4): A. Bus speed B. Processor C. Memory D. Network interface E. Disk subsystem
6. After you add SSL to your Web server, users complain that the web site is much slower. You look at performance monitor and see that the % processor time is consistently above 80%, and the disk pages/sec counter is consistently near zero. How would you fix this problem? (Choose all that apply): A. Install a faster disk B. Install more memory C. Add faster processor. D. Add a second processor if your motherboard and OS allow. E. Offload applications to another server
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5. Which of the following are the leading hardware bottlenecks? (Choose 4): A. Bus speed *B. Processor *C. Memory *D. Network interface *E. Disk subsystem Explanation: The processor, memory, network interface, and disk subsystem on the client, file server and application server are the major potential hardware bottlenecks.
6. After you add SSL to your Web server, users complain that the web site is much slower. You look at performance monitor and see that the % processor time is consistently above 80%, and the disk pages/sec counter is consistently near zero. How would you fix this problem? (Choose all that apply): A. Install a faster disk B. Install more memory *C. Add faster processor. *D. Add a second processor if your motherboard and OS allow. *E. Offload applications to another server Explanation: You need to take some of the load off the processor, add a faster processor or add a second processor.
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7. After you add SSL to your Web server, users complain that the web site is much slower. You look at performance monitor and see that the % processor time intermittently spikes at 100%, and the disk pages/sec counter is consistently above 30. How would you fix this problem? (Choose all that apply): A. Add RAM B. Upgrade to a faster disk system C. Upgrade your processor D. Add a second NIC
8. You want to check out your disk subsystem. You don't find any counters in Performance Monitor. Why not? (Choose all that apply): A. Your performance is within limits B. You have a SCSI drive. C. You have a RAID drive D. Disk performance counters must be enabled with "diskperf -y" or "diskperf ye" for SCSI
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7. After you add SSL to your Web server, users complain that the web site is much slower. You look at performance monitor and see that the % processor time intermittently spikes at 100%, and the disk pages/sec counter is consistently above 30. How would you fix this problem? (Choose all that apply): *A. Add RAM B. Upgrade to a faster disk system C. Upgrade your processor D. Add a second NIC Explanation: If you don't have enough physical memory you will use virtual memory on disk as reflected by paging. Pages/second above 20 indicates that you should add memory.
8. You want to check out your disk subsystem. You don't find any counters in Performance Monitor. Why not? (Choose all that apply): A. Your performance is within limits B. You have a SCSI drive. C. You have a RAID drive *D. Disk performance counters must be enabled with "diskperf -y" or "diskperf -ye" for SCSI Explanation: Monitoring disk performance imposes a load on the disk. After you have collected statistics, disable performance counters with "diskperf -n"
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9. You enable disk performance counters in Performance Monitor and you notice that the average disk queue length is 5. Which of the following statements are true? A. This is within the normal range if you have a Raid 5 disk subsystem. B. If you don't have a Raid 5 subsystem, upgrade to Raid 5 C. To solve a performance problem, you could offload some of the directories to another disk. D. This is within the normal range if you have only one disk.
10. Users complain that when backup runs, network performance suffers. You could improve the situation by? (Choose all that apply): A. Upgrading your NIC B. Segmenting your network C. Putting backup on its own network segment D. Adding a NIC
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9. You enable disk performance counters in Performance Monitor and you notice that the average disk queue length is 5. Which of the following statements are true? *A. This is within the normal range if you have a Raid 5 disk subsystem. *B. If you don't have a Raid 5 subsystem, upgrade to Raid 5 *C. To solve a performance problem, you could offload some of the directories to another disk. D. This is within the normal range if you have only one disk. Explanation: If the disk queue length and % disk time is consistently high, upgrade to a faster disk subsystem, or offload some of the load. The disk queue length should be less than 2.5 per disk subsystem spindle.
10. Users complain that when backup runs, network performance suffers. You could improve the situation by? (Choose all that apply): *A. Upgrading your NIC *B. Segmenting your network *C. Putting backup on its own network segment *D. Adding a NIC Explanation: all of these solutions would improve the problem.
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11. Which of the following Unix/Linux commands provide useful information about system performance? (Choose 3): A. nbtstat - network statistics B. vmstat - virtual memory statistics C. ps - per process CPU and memory use D. uptime - the length of time the system has been running and the number of users on the system.
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11. Which of the following Unix/Linux commands provide useful information about system performance? (Choose 3): A. nbtstat - network statistics *B. vmstat - virtual memory statistics *C. ps - per process CPU and memory use *D. uptime - the length of time the system has been running and the number of users on the system. Explanation: nbtstat is a NT command.
Notes:
Network Management Fundamentals 161
Chapter 4: Network Management Fundamentals 1. Above all a network management system should: A. be scalable B. be secure C. be reliable D. have as little effect on the network as possible. E. have as great a benefit to the network as possible
2. What are the three most important characteristics of a network management system? A. Minimal impact on the network B. Easy to learn C. Simplicity D. Security
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1. Above all a network management system should: A. be scalable B. be secure C. be reliable *D. have as little effect on the network as possible. E. have as great a benefit to the network as possible Explanation: Above all a network management should have as great a benefit to the network as possible.
2. What are the three most important characteristics of a network management system? *A. Minimal impact on the network *B. Easy to learn *C. Simplicity D. Security Explanation: The cardinal rule is minimum impact on the network.
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3. The ISO Management Functional Areas (MFAs) model separates the task of network management into the following categories (Choose all that apply) A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
4. In this type of network management you look for abnormalities. We want to determine symptoms, isolate the problem and provide a solution. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
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3. The ISO Management Functional Areas (MFAs) model separates the task of network management into the following categories (Choose all that apply) *A. Fault Management *B. Configuration Management *C. Accounting Management *D. Performance Management *E. Security Management Explanation: The ISO Management Functional Areas (MFAs) model separates the task of network management into the five categories above.
4. In this type of network management you look for abnormalities. We want to determine symptoms, isolate the problem and provide a solution. What type of network management are we talking about? *A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management Explanation: In Fault Management you look for abnormalities. We want to determine symptoms, isolate the problem and provide a solution.
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5. In this type of network management you initialize, identify, configure and control the devices on your network. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
6. In this type of network management you measure network access by user, subnetwork or device in order to determine the component's operating cost. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
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5. In this type of network management you initialize, identify, configure and control the devices on your network. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management *B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management Explanation: In Configuration Management you initialize, identify, configure and control the devices on your network
6. In this type of network management you measure network access by user, subnetwork or device in order to determine the component's operating cost. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management *C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management Explanation: In Accounting Management you measure network access by user, subnetwork or device in order to determine the components operating cost.
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7. In this type of network management you monitor and control. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
8. In this type of network management you control access policies, logging, auditing, encryption and authentication. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management E. Security Management
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7. In this type of network management you monitor and control. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management *D. Performance Management E. Security Management Explanation: In this Performance Management you monitor and control.
8. In this type of network management you control access policies, logging, auditing, encryption and authentication. What type of network management are we talking about? A. Fault Management B. Configuration Management C. Accounting Management D. Performance Management *E. Security Management Explanation: In Security Management you control access policies, logging, auditing, encryption and authentication.
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9. Which of the following are functions of Configuration Management? (Choose all that apply): A. Initial network configuration B. Software distribution C. Altering network relationships D. Determining symptoms E. Isolating a problem
10. Network Management Model consists of the following four elements: A. A topology B. A network management protocol C. A network management station D. An information base E. A managed node
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9. Which of the following are functions of Configuration Management? (Choose all that apply): *A. Initial network configuration *B. Software distribution *C. Altering network relationships D. Determining symptoms E. Isolating a problem Explanation: Configuration Management is the ability to initialize, identify, configure, and control the devices in the network. It also includes software distribution, observing the current state of the network and reporting the network status.
10. Network Management Model consists of the following four elements: A. A topology *B. A network management protocol *C. A network management station *D. An information base *E. A managed node Explanation: The Network Management Model consists of the following four elements: a network management protocol, a network management station, an information base, and a managed node.
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11. In a network management system, what is the difference between a transversal and a trap? (Choose all that apply): A. In a transversal the NMS asks for data from the agent that is on a managed node. B. A trap must be preconfigured with the triggering conditions C. A transversal is the preferred method for gathering information. D. In a trap the agent sends information to the NMS in response to an extraordinary event.
12. Name the two chief benefits of a enterprise-grade NMS. A. Multi-protocol transport support B. Multi-management protocol support C. Establishing a map of the system D. Automating polling of the each of the managed nodes
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11. In a network management system, what is the difference between a transversal and a trap? (Choose all that apply): *A. In a transversal the NMS asks for data from the agent that is on a managed node. *B. A trap must be preconfigured with the triggering conditions *C. A transversal is the preferred method for gathering information. *D. In a trap the agent sends information to the NMS in response to an extraordinary event. Explanation: All of the above are true.
12. Name the two chief benefits of a enterprise-grade NMS. A. Multi-protocol transport support B. Multi-management protocol support *C. Establishing a map of the system *D. Automating polling of the each of the managed nodes Explanation: The two chief benefits of a enterprise-grade NMS are mapping a network and automating queries to the managed nodes.
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13. An agent cannot communicate directly with the NMS, because it does not share a common protocol. In this case you should? (Choose the best answer): A. Enable another NMS that speaks the same protocol as the station you want to manage. B. Use a proxy agent C. Enable a multi-protocol router D. Enable a tunnel
14. Which of the following functions may be performed by a NMS Proxy agent? (Choose 2): A. Caching and administrative caching B. Multi-transport and Multi-management protocol support C. DNS name resolution D. Wins name resolution
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13. An agent cannot communicate directly with the NMS, because it does not share a common protocol. In this case you should? (Choose the best answer): A. Enable another NMS that speaks the same protocol as the station you want to manage. *B. Use a proxy agent C. Enable a multi-protocol router D. Enable a tunnel Explanation: A proxy agent acts on behalf of another device. A proxy agent can solve the situations where the managed device does not share a protocol with the NMS or the NMS wants to delegate some of the administrative burden.
14. Which of the following functions may be performed by a NMS Proxy agent? (Choose 2): *A. Caching and administrative caching *B. Multi-transport and Multi-management protocol support C. DNS name resolution D. Wins name resolution Explanation: A NMS proxy agent works for and on behalf of the NMS.
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15. HeartBeat NetMonitoring provides 24 hour network monitoring to small corporations. One of these small corporations, Buy Net, buys another small corporation, Stone shopping. These corporations are using SNMPv1 on a IPX/SPX network and SNMPv3 on a TCP/IP network respectively. What would be needed to enable agents on the IPX/SPX network to convey information to the TCP/IP network? A. Gateway agent B. Translating agent C. Spanning-tree agent D. Client services agent
16. How would you most accurately describe a network management MIB? (Choose 2): A. It stores information on the status of managed network devices in a database B. A vehicle to inform the NMS that information exists C. It describes the an agent's ability to retrieve and report information D. It outlines the network's ability to work E. It describes how the agent should structure the network management information
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15. HeartBeat NetMonitoring provides 24 hour network monitoring to small corporations. One of these small corporations, Buy Net, buys another small corporation, Stone shopping. These corporations are using SNMPv1 on a IPX/SPX network and SNMPv3 on a TCP/IP network respectively. What would be needed to enable agents on the IPX/SPX network to convey information to the TCP/IP network? *A. Gateway agent B. Translating agent C. Spanning-tree agent D. Client services agent Explanation: A proxy that translates between different network protocols is called a gateway agent.
16. How would you most accurately describe a network management MIB? (Choose 2): A. It stores information on the status of managed network devices in a database B. A vehicle to inform the NMS that information exists *C. It describes the an agent's ability to retrieve and report information D. It outlines the network's ability to work *E. It describes how the agent should structure the network management information Explanation: A management information base does not store information about the network in a database.
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17. What are the key features of a Network Management Station (NMS)? (Choose 2): A. Decentralized control with one per managed device B. Supports a network management protocol C. Supports incremental updates D. Supports a NMS application
18. Your company, Friendswood Venture Capital is looking for an enterprise-grade NMS. Which criteria should you use to evaluate the candidate systems? (Choose all the correct criteria): A. An easily learned and functional interface B. The capability to poll agents, and to receive and process traps and then easily update the query database, C. A password-protected application D. Many ways to scale the product. E. Multiple reporting mechanisms, such as HTML reporting or porting the information to a database that may be queried to generate multiple preconfigured and custom report formats.
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17. What are the key features of a Network Management Station (NMS)? (Choose 2): A. Decentralized control with one per managed device *B. Supports a network management protocol C. Supports incremental updates *D. Supports a NMS application Explanation: NMS Applications include Microsoft's SMS, HP's Openview and Sun's SunNet manager.
18. Your company, Friendswood Venture Capital is looking for an enterprise-grade NMS. Which criteria should you use to evaluate the candidate systems? (Choose all the correct criteria): *A. An easily learned and functional interface *B. The capability to poll agents, and to receive and process traps and then easily update the query database, *C. A password-protected application *D. Many ways to scale the product. *E. Multiple reporting mechanisms, such as HTML reporting or porting the information to a database that may be queried to generate multiple preconfigured and custom report formats. Explanation: All of the above are true.
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19. Your are a network management consultant on a Global Reach team recommending a network management architecture for a nationwide company, DVD.com that has outgrown a centralized architecture. What might you recommend? (Choose 2): A. A distributed architecture with an East Coast NMS and a West Coast NMS. B. A Domain architecture with a centralized NMS at DVD.com HQ, and peer-topeer NMS's for the East Coast and the West Coast. C. A hierarchical architecture with a centralized NMS at DVD.com HQ, and distributed NMS's for the East Coast and the West Coast. D. A Peer-to-peer architecture with an East Coast NMS and a West Coast NMS.
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19. Your are a network management consultant on a Global Reach team recommending a network management architecture for a nationwide company, DVD.com that has outgrown a centralized architecture. What might you recommend? (Choose 2): *A. A distributed architecture with an East Coast NMS and a West Coast NMS. B. A Domain architecture with a centralized NMS at DVD.com HQ, and peer-topeer NMS's for the East Coast and the West Coast. *C. A hierarchical architecture with a centralized NMS at DVD.com HQ, and distributed NMS's for the East Coast and the West Coast. D. A Peer-to-peer architecture with an East Coast NMS and a West Coast NMS. Explanation: Distributed and Centralized are the step-up NMS architectures.
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Chapter 5: SNMP History, Process and Architecture 1. You need to decide which version of SNMP to use for your company. You want to use a version that is the most easily supported, and has security beyond community names. Which version might you pick? A. SNMPv1 because it is the most popular B. SNMPv2 because it supports security and is the most supportable version of SNMP. C. SNMPv3 because it is far more prevalent that SMTPv2 and it supports security D. SNMPv1 because it is the easiest to support and supports security.
2. Why did SNMP become so popular? (Choose all that apply): A. Simplicity, with easy ability to join an NT domain B. Wide industry support by developers C. Minimal memory and CPU resource use D. SMTP is based on an open protocol standard that has proven to be quite stable. E. Centralized administration .Portability/extensibility to new devices that conform to SNMP rules.
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1. You need to decide which version of SNMP to use for your company. You want to use a version that is the most easily supported, and has security beyond community names. Which version might you pick? A. SNMPv1 because it is the most popular B. SNMPv2 because it supports security and is the most supportable version of SNMP. *C. SNMPv3 because it is far more prevalent that SMTPv2 and it supports security D. SNMPv1 because it is the easiest to support and supports security. Explanation: SNMPv3 supports security, while SNMPv1 and v2 does not. SNMPv2 never gained widespread support and never became a standard.
2. Why did SNMP become so popular? (Choose all that apply): A. Simplicity, with easy ability to join an NT domain *B. Wide industry support by developers *C. Minimal memory and CPU resource use *D. SMTP is based on an open protocol standard that has proven to be quite stable. *E. Centralized administration .Portability/extensibility to new devices that conform to SNMP rules. Explanation: Because SNMP is simple, the NMS need never join a domain or other administrative unit.
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3. You are researching the RFCs for information on SNMPv1. Which RFCs might be helpful? (Choose 4): A. RFC 1155 - Structure of Management Information B. RFC 1157 - Simple Network Management protocol C. RFC 1212 - Concise MIB Definitions D. RFC 1213 - Management Information Base II E. RFC 2575 - User-based Security Model (USM)
4. You are evaluating what advantages SMTPv3 has over SMTPv1. What advantage does SMTPv3 have over SMTPv1? A. SNMPv3 is more widely supported. B. SNMPv3 provides support for Banyan Vines as well as TCP/IP C. SNMPv3 pioneered the use of community names for security D. SNMPv3 employs a user-based security model
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3. You are researching the RFCs for information on SNMPv1. Which RFCs might be helpful? (Choose 4): *A. RFC 1155 - Structure of Management Information *B. RFC 1157 - Simple Network Management protocol *C. RFC 1212 - Concise MIB Definitions *D. RFC 1213 - Management Information Base II E. RFC 2575 - User-based Security Model (USM) Explanation: RFC 2575 - User-based Security Model (USM) describes SNMPv3 security.
4. You are evaluating what advantages SMTPv3 has over SMTPv1. What advantage does SMTPv3 have over SMTPv1? A. SNMPv3 is more widely supported. B. SNMPv3 provides support for Banyan Vines as well as TCP/IP C. SNMPv3 pioneered the use of community names for security *D. SNMPv3 employs a user-based security model Explanation: SNMPv1 is still the most popular, and supports primitive security via community names.
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5. SNMP Structure of Management Information (SMI) explains how to structure, name and encode SNMP management information. It contain three requirements that are follows: (Choose 3): A. Each object type must have a name or object identifier for creation of a MIB. B. The NMS C. The syntax or grammar to be used D. The encoding scheme E. The MIB
6. Which statements are true about the MIB structure? (Choose 3): A. SMI is used to define objects in the MIB B. SNMP objects are defined by MIB-I and MIB-II standards C. The MIB tree structure is similar to that of a hard disk with a root, directories, subdirectories and files. D. A labeled node in a MIB tree is referred to by its OID.
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5. SNMP Structure of Management Information (SMI) explains how to structure, name and encode SNMP management information. It contain three requirements that are follows: (Choose 3): *A. Each object type must have a name or object identifier for creation of a MIB. B. The NMS *C. The syntax or grammar to be used *D. The encoding scheme E. The MIB Explanation: THE SNMP SMI document specifies that each object type must have a name or object identifier for creation of a MIB; the syntax or grammar to be used ; and the encoding scheme.
6. Which statements are true about the MIB structure? (Choose 3): A. SMI is used to define objects in the MIB *B. SNMP objects are defined by MIB-I and MIB-II standards *C. The MIB tree structure is similar to that of a hard disk with a root, directories, subdirectories and files. *D. A labeled node in a MIB tree is referred to by its OID. Explanation: SMI does not define any objects; instead, it specifies how objects should be defined.
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7. How do ASN.1 and BER aid SNMP MIB syntax and encoding? (Choose all that apply): A. BER is a programming language used to create MIB objects B. ASN.1 is a programming language used to create MIB objects C. ASN.1 breaks up the BER information into octets which can be transferred across the network D. BER breaks up the ASN.1 information into octets which can be transferred across the network E. ASN.1 provides human-readable code.
8. Which of the following are valid SNMP commands? (Choose all that apply): A. GetRequest B. GetNextRequest C. SetRequest D. GetResponse E. Trap
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7. How do ASN.1 and BER aid SNMP MIB syntax and encoding? (Choose all that apply): A. BER is a programming language used to create MIB objects *B. ASN.1 is a programming language used to create MIB objects C. ASN.1 breaks up the BER information into octets which can be transferred across the network *D. BER breaks up the ASN.1 information into octets which can be transferred across the network *E. ASN.1 provides human-readable code. Explanation: ASN.1 is used to create actual MIB objects in human-readable code. BER provides a way for information to be transferred across the network.
8. Which of the following are valid SNMP commands? (Choose all that apply): *A. GetRequest *B. GetNextRequest *C. SetRequest *D. GetResponse *E. Trap Explanation: All the above are valid SNMP commands. THE NMS sends GetRequest, GetNextRequest and SetRequest, while the agent sends GetResponse and Trap.
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9. What must be done before you can use a SNMP NMS? A. Initialization B. Validation C. Signing D. Network discovery E. RIP
10. Which are methods of network discovery? (Choose all that apply): A. ICMP packets B. Querying arp caches C. Reading routing tables D. Interrogating Server Manager E. Listening to RIP or OSPF broadcasts
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9. What must be done before you can use a SNMP NMS? A. Initialization B. Validation C. Signing *D. Network discovery E. RIP Explanation: Before you can use a SNMP NMS you must learn about managed devices using network discovery.
10. Which are methods of network discovery? (Choose all that apply): *A. ICMP packets *B. Querying arp caches *C. Reading routing tables D. Interrogating Server Manager *E. Listening to RIP or OSPF broadcasts Explanation: Sending too many ICMP packets may flood the network.
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11. From SNMP PDU number 0 through 4, in order identify the PDU type: A. GetRequest, Walk, GetResponse, SetResponse, Trap B. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, SetRequest, Trap, SetRequest C. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, SetResponse, SetRequest, Trap D. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, SetRequest, Trap.
12. SNMP uses which transport protocol? (Choose the best answer): A. TCP for reliability B. UDP for speed C. IP for addressing D. NBT for session management
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11. From SNMP PDU number 0 through 4, in order identify the PDU type: A. GetRequest, Walk, GetResponse, SetResponse, Trap B. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, SetRequest, Trap, SetRequest C. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, SetResponse, SetRequest, Trap *D. GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, SetRequest, Trap. Explanation: From SNMP PDU number 0 through 4, the PDU type is GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, SetRequest, Trap.
12. SNMP uses which transport protocol? (Choose the best answer): A. TCP for reliability *B. UDP for speed C. IP for addressing D. NBT for session management Explanation: UDP is used by SNMP in order to put as little load as possible on the network. UDP is a connectionless, best-effort delivery protocol that works well with broadcasts.
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13. If you want to manage a router outside your firewall using SNMP, what ports do you have to open up? A. TCP ports 21 and 80 B. UDP port 25 and 110 C. UDP ports 161 and 162 D. SNMP port 21 and 80
14. Which of the following are specific to Microsoft SNMP? A. SNMPUTIL from the NT 4.0 Resource Kit. B. SMS, Systems Management Server C. The Walk command D. Ping Pro E. Scotty
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13. If you want to manage a router outside your firewall using SNMP, what ports do you have to open up? A. TCP ports 21 and 80 B. UDP port 25 and 110 *C. UDP ports 161 and 162 D. SNMP port 21 and 80 Explanation: NMS uses port 162 to listen for agent messages and as agent listens on port 16; however some SNMP systems are configured to dynamically negotiate a common reserved port in the range of 1024 to 64k.
14. Which of the following are specific to Microsoft SNMP? *A. SNMPUTIL from the NT 4.0 Resource Kit. *B. SMS, Systems Management Server *C. The Walk command D. Ping Pro E. Scotty Explanation: Ipswitch Ping Pro uses a crude SNMP MIB and performs reverse DNS lookup, pinging and traceroute. Scotty uses SMTP and runs on many Unix/Linux platforms.
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15. In NT Server on Agent tab of SNMP Properties what services are checked by default (Choose 3): A. Physical B. Applications C. Datalink / Subnetwork D. Internet E. End-to-End
16. You want to use your NT server as an SNMP proxy to manage a bridge and to manage several Layer 1 switches. On the Agent tab of SNMP Properties what additional services should be checked? (Choose 2): A. Physical B. Applications C. Datalink / Subnetwork D. Internet E. End-to-End
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15. In NT Server on Agent tab of SNMP Properties what services are checked by default (Choose 3): A. Physical *B. Applications C. Datalink / Subnetwork *D. Internet *E. End-to-End Explanation: Applications monitors applications. Internet monitors any router function that your NT Server performs. End-to-End should always be checked as your NT server is always an IP host.
16. You want to use your NT server as an SNMP proxy to manage a bridge and to manage several Layer 1 switches. On the Agent tab of SNMP Properties what additional services should be checked? (Choose 2): *A. Physical B. Applications *C. Datalink / Subnetwork D. Internet E. End-to-End Explanation: On the Agent tab of SNMP Properties additional services should be checked as follows: Physical for the Layer 1 switch (or for a hub); and Datalink / Subnetwork for a bridge / Layer 2 switch.
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17. In NT Server on which tab of SNMP Properties would you set the Community Name and Trap Destinations. A. Agent B. Community C. Traps D. Security E. General
18. In NT Server on which tab of SNMP Properties would you set the Accepted Community Names from you will accept queries? A. Query B. SMTP C. Security D. Traps E. Agent
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17. In NT Server on which tab of SNMP Properties would you set the Community Name and Trap Destinations. A. Agent B. Community *C. Traps D. Security E. General Explanation: In NT Server on the Traps tab of SNMP Properties you would set the Community Name and Trap Destinations.
18. In NT Server on which tab of SNMP Properties would you set the Accepted Community Names from you will accept queries? A. Query B. SMTP *C. Security D. Traps E. Agent Explanation: The security tab may also be used to set the IP addresses or host names of NMSs that your NT server will respond to, and whether your NT Server will send an error message back to a NMS trying to extract information from it. To do this we would put a check mark in Send Authentication Trap.
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19. To install Win9x SNMP agents you would? (Choose 3): A. They on the Win9x installation CD B. They are on the NT 4.0 installation CD C. They are in the \admin\nettools\snmp directory D. They are installed through the Network | Configuration windows using have disk and pointing towards snmp.inf E. They are installed through the Network | Configuration windows using have disk and pointing towards snmp.exe
20. What is the default SNMP community name? A. Public B. Root C. Community D. Shared E. Workgroup
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19. To install Win9x SNMP agents you would? (Choose 3): *A. They on the Win9x installation CD B. They are on the NT 4.0 installation CD *C. They are in the \admin\nettools\snmp directory *D. They are installed through the Network | Configuration windows using have disk and pointing towards snmp.inf E. They are installed through the Network | Configuration windows using have disk and pointing towards snmp.exe Explanation: Point towards the snmp.inf file on the Win98 installation CD.
20. What is the default SNMP community name? *A. Public B. Root C. Community D. Shared E. Workgroup Explanation: The default SNMP community name is Public.
Notes:
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Chapter 6: Management Information Base 1. Concerning SNMP MIB, which of the following statements are true? (Choose 3: A. The highest level of the MIB is unofficially called root. B. The two MIB specifications are MIB and MIB1 C. RFC 1155 directs that every managed object must have a name and a OID D. The Department of Defense manages the iso.org.dod.Internet MIB sub-tree
2. Which of the following OIDs are under SNMP MIB-I root.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib? (Choose 2): A. ip, icmp, tcp, udp B. epg, system, interfaces, addr-trans C. snmp, cmot, trans, ... D. cisco, novell, silicon graphics, lan manager, Microsoft, Qualcomm, inc, o'reilly and associates
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1. Concerning SNMP MIB, which of the following statements are true? (Choose 3: *A. The highest level of the MIB is unofficially called root. B. The two MIB specifications are MIB and MIB1 *C. RFC 1155 directs that every managed object must have a name and a OID *D. The Department of Defense manages the iso.org.dod.Internet MIB sub-tree Explanation: The two MIB specifications are MIB-I and MIB-II.
2. Which of the following OIDs are under SNMP MIB-I root.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib? (Choose 2): *A. ip, icmp, tcp, udp *B. epg, system, interfaces, addr-trans C. snmp, cmot, trans, ... D. cisco, novell, silicon graphics, lan manager, Microsoft, Qualcomm, inc, o'reilly and associates Explanation: MIB II (root.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-II) contains snmp, cmot, trans and ... root.iso.org.dod.internet.private.enterprises contains cisco, novell, silicon graphics, lan manager, Microsoft, Qualcomm, inc, o'reilly and associates.
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3. Which of the following statements are true about the groups residing below the SNMP MIB-II group? (Choose 4): A. The system group gives you information about the host system B. The interfaces group provides information on interfaces that is used for fault, configuration, performance and accounting management. C. The address translation group determines IP addresses D. The IP group provides information about errors and types of IP packets sent. E. The SNMP group provides information about SNMP packets.
4. A SNMP NMS transmits a GetRequest to an agent on a NT server for the scalar variable in the MIB path 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.4. To get this scalar, the NMS would append to the MIB path: A. Nothing B. A zero C. A period D. A dollar sign E. An exclamation point.
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3. Which of the following statements are true about the groups residing below the SNMP MIB-II group? (Choose 4): *A. The system group gives you information about the host system *B. The interfaces group provides information on interfaces that is used for fault, configuration, performance and accounting management. C. The address translation group determines IP addresses *D. The IP group provides information about errors and types of IP packets sent. *E. The SNMP group provides information about SNMP packets. Explanation: The address translation group determines hardware addresses
4. A SNMP NMS transmits a GetRequest to an agent on a NT server for the scalar variable in the MIB path 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.4. To get this scalar, the NMS would append to the MIB path: A. Nothing *B. A zero C. A period D. A dollar sign E. An exclamation point. Explanation: 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.4.0 would be transmitted by the NMS to get this scalar value.
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5. A SNMP NMS transmits a GetRequest to an agent on a NT server for an entry in a two column table in the MIB path 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.5.1. To get that entry in the table the NMS would append to the MIB path: A. The column number and the row number B. The row number and the column number C. The item of interest in the first column and the item of interest in the second column. D. the column E. nothing
6. In Linux what is the command to get SNMP MIB information on host 131.107.2.1 in the public community with the .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 MIB path? A. snmputil 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 B. snmpget .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 C. snmputil .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 D. snmpget 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0
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5. A SNMP NMS transmits a GetRequest to an agent on a NT server for an entry in a two column table in the MIB path 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.5.1. To get that entry in the table the NMS would append to the MIB path: A. The column number and the row number B. The row number and the column number *C. The item of interest in the first column and the item of interest in the second column. D. the column E. nothing Explanation: If the first column had 131.107.2.0 and the second column had 1024 then you would append to 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.5.1.2 131.107.2.0.80 so the destination for the GetRequest would look like 1.3.6.1.2.1.7.5.1.2.131.107.2.0.1024. As you already know the values, this doesn't do you a lot of good.
6. In Linux what is the command to get SNMP MIB information on host 131.107.2.1 in the public community with the .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 MIB path? A. snmputil 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 B. snmpget .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 C. snmputil .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 *D. snmpget 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 Explanation: snmpget 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0
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7. In NT what is the command to get ALL the SNMP MIB information on host 131.107.2.1 in the public community STARTING at the .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 MIB path. A. snmputil walk 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 B. snmpget .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 C. snmputil get .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 D. snmpget 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0
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7. In NT what is the command to get ALL the SNMP MIB information on host 131.107.2.1 in the public community STARTING at the .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 MIB path. *A. snmputil walk 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 B. snmpget .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 C. snmputil get .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 public 131.107.2.1 D. snmpget 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0 Explanation: snmputil walk 131.107.2.1 public .1.3.6.1.2.1.1.1.0
Notes:
SNMP in the Enterprise 215
Chapter 7: SNMP in the Enterprise 1. There are five SNMP message types. For four of these types the format is the same. What are the types with the identical format and what are the fields in the format? (Choose 2): A. Get Request, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, and SetRequest B. Get Request, GetResponse, SetRequest, and Trap C. PDU Type, Request ID, Err Status/Err Index, Object identifier D. PDU Type, Enterprise, Agent Address, Variable Values
2. What format does the SNMP Trap message use and what is the PDU Type for a Trap message? A. PDU Type | Enterprise | Agent Address | Generic Trap | Specific Trap | Time Stamp | Variable Values B. PDU Type | Request ID | Err Status / Err Index | Object Identifier C. PDU Type=4 D. PDU Type=5
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1. There are five SNMP message types. For four of these types the format is the same. What are the types with the identical format and what are the fields in the format? (Choose 2): *A. Get Request, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, and SetRequest B. Get Request, GetResponse, SetRequest, and Trap *C. PDU Type, Request ID, Err Status/Err Index, Object identifier D. PDU Type, Enterprise, Agent Address, Variable Values Explanation: Get Request, GetNextRequest, GetResponse, and SetRequest use the PDU (Protocol Data Unit) format: PDU Type, Request ID, Err Status/Err Index, Object Identifier
2. What format does the SNMP Trap message use and what is the PDU Type for a Trap message? *A. PDU Type | Enterprise | Agent Address | Generic Trap | Specific Trap | Time Stamp | Variable Values B. PDU Type | Request ID | Err Status / Err Index | Object Identifier *C. PDU Type=4 D. PDU Type=5 Explanation: PDU Type=4 | Enterprise | Agent Address | Generic Trap | Specific Trap | Time Stamp | Variable Values
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3. Although the GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetResponse and SetRequest SNMP PDU messages use the following common format: PDU Type | Request ID | Err Status / Err Index | Object Identifier, The Err Status / Err Index fields are only used by the following PDU type: (Choose two): A. PDU Type=2 B. PDU Type=3 C. GetResponse D. SetRequest E. GetNextrequest
4. What is true about SNMPv1 error messages vs. SNMPv1 trap messages? (Choose all that apply): A. Trap messages are sent by the NMS. B. A Trap message alerts you about a problem with your network. C. An error message is sent whenever there is a problem with a NMS to agent relationship, such as a query to a OID that is not supported by the agent. D. A error message alerts you about a problem with your network. E. A trap message is sent whenever there is a problem with a NMS to agent relationship, such as a query to a OID that is not supported by the agent.
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3. Although the GetRequest, GetNextRequest, GetResponse and SetRequest SNMP PDU messages use the following common format: PDU Type | Request ID | Err Status / Err Index | Object Identifier, The Err Status / Err Index fields are only used by the following PDU type: (Choose two): *A. PDU Type=2 B. PDU Type=3 *C. GetResponse D. SetRequest E. GetNextrequest Explanation: PDU Type=2 which is GetResponse
4. What is true about SNMPv1 error messages vs. SNMPv1 trap messages? (Choose all that apply): A. Trap messages are sent by the NMS. *B. A Trap message alerts you about a problem with your network. *C. An error message is sent whenever there is a problem with a NMS to agent relationship, such as a query to a OID that is not supported by the agent. D. A error message alerts you about a problem with your network. E. A trap message is sent whenever there is a problem with a NMS to agent relationship, such as a query to a OID that is not supported by the agent. Explanation: Trap messages are always sent by the agent. A Trap message alerts you about a problem with your network. An error message is sent whenever there is a problem with a NMS to agent relationship, such as a query to a OID that is not supported by the agent.
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5. What are some drawbacks of SNMPv1? (Choose 3): A. Security - Trivial authentication B. Security - Lack of encryption C. Lack of scalability D. Lack of support
6. On your Linux server, Moonlighting, you want to change the default community name to Bruce. Which file would you edit? A. hosts.allow B. passwd C. inetd.conf D. snmpd.conf
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5. What are some drawbacks of SNMPv1? (Choose 3): *A. Security - Trivial authentication *B. Security - Lack of encryption *C. Lack of scalability D. Lack of support Explanation: SNMPv1 is well supported.
6. On your Linux server, Moonlighting, you want to change the default community name to Bruce. Which file would you edit? A. hosts.allow B. passwd C. inetd.conf *D. snmpd.conf Explanation: You would edit /etc/snmp/snmpd.conf to change the default community name.
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7. You have just changed the default community name on your Linux server, Moonlighting to Bruce, and then you issued the command snmpd restart. Which of the following commands could be used to check SNMP connectivity? (Choose 2): A. snmpwalk localhost bruce ip B. snmpwalk 127.10.10.10 bruce ip C. snmpwalk bruce loopback ip D. snmpwalk bruce moonlighting ip
8. What are some shortcomings of SNMPv1 that were addressed by SNMPv3? A. Limited Communications paths B. No primitive security C. No multiprotocol support D. No user security
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7. You have just changed the default community name on your Linux server, Moonlighting to Bruce, and then you issued the command snmpd restart. Which of the following commands could be used to check SNMP connectivity? (Choose 2): *A. snmpwalk localhost bruce ip *B. snmpwalk 127.10.10.10 bruce ip C. snmpwalk bruce loopback ip D. snmpwalk bruce moonlighting ip Explanation: Linux uses localhost or 127.x.y.z to refer to the local host. NT uses loopback or 127.x.y.z to refer to the local host.
8. What are some shortcomings of SNMPv1 that were addressed by SNMPv3? *A. Limited Communications paths B. No primitive security *C. No multiprotocol support *D. No user security Explanation: SNMPv1 provides primitive security via community names.
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9. What is a NT utility to analyze a SNMP authentication trap or other traffic, and what is a Linux utility to analyze a SNMP authentication trap or other traffic? (Choose 2): A. NT: tcpdump B. NT: Sniffer Basic C. Linux: tcpdump D. Linux: Sniffer Basic
10. What is RMON? (Choose all that apply): A. Remote network MONitoring mib B. Part of MIB-I C. Something that allows real-time monitoring of a network from sources other than a NMS D. A powerful set of MIB definitions E. Something that employs a RMON agent or "probe"
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9. What is a NT utility to analyze a SNMP authentication trap or other traffic, and what is a Linux utility to analyze a SNMP authentication trap or other traffic? (Choose 2): A. NT: tcpdump *B. NT: Sniffer Basic *C. Linux: tcpdump D. Linux: Sniffer Basic
10. What is RMON? (Choose all that apply): *A. Remote network MONitoring mib B. Part of MIB-I *C. Something that allows real-time monitoring of a network from sources other than a NMS *D. A powerful set of MIB definitions *E. Something that employs a RMON agent or "probe" Explanation: RMON is part of MIB-II
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11. What are some benefits of RMON? (Choose all that apply): A. Can monitor devices across routers B. Less load on the network C. More complete picture of the network D. Non-proprietary E. Scalable
12. What were some goals of RMON? (Choose 2): A. The ability to conduct remote monitoring even if the NMS is not polling an agent (offline operation). B. Compatibility with the Etheral security standard C. Proactive monitoring providing value added information in human-readable form D. Reactive monitoring to decrease the network overhead of a NMS.
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11. What are some benefits of RMON? (Choose all that apply): *A. Can monitor devices across routers *B. Less load on the network *C. More complete picture of the network *D. Non-proprietary *E. Scalable Explanation: All the above are benefits of RMON.
12. What were some goals of RMON? (Choose 2): *A. The ability to conduct remote monitoring even if the NMS is not polling an agent (offline operation). B. Compatibility with the Etheral security standard *C. Proactive monitoring providing value added information in human-readable form D. Reactive monitoring to decrease the network overhead of a NMS. Explanation: the designers of RMON met the following goals: The ability to conduct remote monitoring even if the NMS is not polling an agent (offline operation) and proactive monitoring providing value added information in human-readable form.
Notes:
IPv6 - Introduction and IPv4 Comparison 229
Chapter 8: IPv6 - Introduction and IPv4 Comparison 1. What prompted the need for IPv6? A. The IPv4 Internet is running out of IP addresses B. Increased use of UDP C. The need for hop-by-hop segmentation D. The difficulty of managing backbone routing tables
2. Which of the following proposed protocols became the basis for IPv6? A. TUBA B. CATNIP C. SIPP D. SICDOG
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1. What prompted the need for IPv6? *A. The IPv4 Internet is running out of IP addresses B. Increased use of UDP C. The need for hop-by-hop segmentation *D. The difficulty of managing backbone routing tables Explanation: IPv6 increases the number of available IP addresses and eases configuration of Internet backbone routing tables.
2. Which of the following proposed protocols became the basis for IPv6? A. TUBA B. CATNIP *C. SIPP D. SICDOG Explanation: SIPP, Simple Internet Protocol Plus - RFC 1710 evolved to IPv6 - RFC 2460.
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3. What is true about the TCP headers? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The IPv4 header is 20 bytes in length, but can be bigger B. The IPv6 header is usually 40 bytes in length, but is variable C. The first field is the Version which is either 1000 or 1010 D. The IPv6 header contains 10 fields of information E. The IPv4 header contains 6 fields of information
4. Which are valid comparisons between IPv4 and IPv6 headers? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The IPv4 fields dropped from IPv6 include Header Length, Type of Service, Datagram Identification Number, Flags, Fragment Offset, Header Checksum and Options. B. The only common fields are Version, Source Address and Destination Address C. TTL is replaced by Hop Limit; Protocol is replaced by Next Header; Datagram Length is replaced by Payload Length. D. New IPv6 Fields include Flow label and Class E. Flow Label and Class are used for handling real time traffic.
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3. What is true about the TCP headers? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. The IPv4 header is 20 bytes in length, but can be bigger B. The IPv6 header is usually 40 bytes in length, but is variable *C. The first field is the Version which is either 1000 or 1010 D. The IPv6 header contains 10 fields of information E. The IPv4 header contains 6 fields of information Explanation: The IPv6 header is fixed at 40 bytes in length and contains 6 fields of information plus source and destination address, while the IPv4 header is at least 20 bytes in length and contains 10 fields of information, plus the source and destination address, plus the IPv4 header has a variable length Options field that may make it larger than 20 bytes.
4. Which are valid comparisons between IPv4 and IPv6 headers? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. The IPv4 fields dropped from IPv6 include Header Length, Type of Service, Datagram Identification Number, Flags, Fragment Offset, Header Checksum and Options. *B. The only common fields are Version, Source Address and Destination Address *C. TTL is replaced by Hop Limit; Protocol is replaced by Next Header; Datagram Length is replaced by Payload Length. *D. New IPv6 Fields include Flow label and Class *E. Flow Label and Class are used for handling real time traffic. Explanation: All the above are true
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5. How does IPv6 simplify the IP header? (Choose all the correct answers): A. It is shorter B. It has a fixed format so doesn't need a header checksum C. It removes the hop-by-hop fragmentation procedure D. It removes the Type of Service field E. It removes Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) discovery.
6. How does IPv6 determine a packet size to send across the Internet? A. It fragments large packets that would not otherwise be able to pass through routers. B. The sender must discover the maximum packet size that may be sent C. The receiver discovers the maximum packet size that may be sent. D. The default gateway discovers the maximum packet size that may be sent E. The Link Monitor discovers the maximum packet size that can be sent.
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5. How does IPv6 simplify the IP header? (Choose all the correct answers): A. It is shorter *B. It has a fixed format so doesn't need a header checksum *C. It removes the hop-by-hop fragmentation procedure *D. It removes the Type of Service field E. It removes Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) discovery. Explanation: Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) discovery replaces hop-by-hop fragmentation.
6. How does IPv6 determine a packet size to send across the Internet? A. It fragments large packets that would not otherwise be able to pass through routers. *B. The sender must discover the maximum packet size that may be sent C. The receiver discovers the maximum packet size that may be sent. D. The default gateway discovers the maximum packet size that may be sent E. The Link Monitor discovers the maximum packet size that can be sent. Explanation: The sender must discover the maximum packet size that may be sent via a process called maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) Discovery.
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7. Two packets are sent, one using IPv4, and one using IPv6. How would you determine the respective packet sizes? (Choose 2): A. IPv6: Payload Field Length + 40 bytes B. IPv6: Payload Field Length C. IPv4: Datagram Field Length + Header Length D. IPv4: Datagram Field Length
8. How does IPv6 replace the function of the Options field in IPv4? A. Extension Headers B. 128-bit addresses C. By simplifying the protocol D. MTU discovery E. Flow control
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7. Two packets are sent, one using IPv4, and one using IPv6. How would you determine the respective packet sizes? (Choose 2): *A. IPv6: Payload Field Length + 40 bytes B. IPv6: Payload Field Length C. IPv4: Datagram Field Length + Header Length *D. IPv4: Datagram Field Length Explanation: In IPv4 the Datagram Field Length is the total packet size. In IPv6 the Payload Length does not include the header length which is fixed at 40 bytes.
8. How does IPv6 replace the function of the Options field in IPv4? *A. Extension Headers B. 128-bit addresses C. By simplifying the protocol D. MTU discovery E. Flow control Explanation: IPv6 replaces the function of the Options field in IPv4 by use of Extension Headers.
Notes:
IPv6 Header and Extension Headers 239
Chapter 9: IPv6 Header and Extension Headers 1. Which information is true about IPv6 packets? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The Version field is 4 bits and is 1010 B. The Class is 8 bits and the Flow label is 20 bits. Together they are used for "real-time" traffic. C. The Next Header is 8 bits, and usually indicates the transport layer protocol (TCP or UDP) that follows the IP header. D. If the Next Header does not refer to the transport layer protocol (TCP or UDP) that follows the IP header, then it refers to the first extension header. E. The Source and Destination Addresses are 128 bytes.
2. Which information is true about IPv6 packets? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The default Hop Limit is 15 in order to eliminate the "count to infinity" problem B. The Class field determines the priority of the packet. C. The Flow label is used to address a series of packets. D. The total header size is 20 bytes.
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1. Which information is true about IPv6 packets? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. The Version field is 4 bits and is 1010 *B. The Class is 8 bits and the Flow label is 20 bits. Together they are used for "realtime" traffic. *C. The Next Header is 8 bits, and usually indicates the transport layer protocol (TCP or UDP) that follows the IP header. *D. If the Next Header does not refer to the transport layer protocol (TCP or UDP) that follows the IP header, then it refers to the first extension header. E. The Source and Destination Addresses are 128 bytes. Explanation: The Source and Destination Addresses are 128 bits.
2. Which information is true about IPv6 packets? (Choose all the correct answers): A. The default Hop Limit is 15 in order to eliminate the "count to infinity" problem *B. The Class field determines the priority of the packet. *C. The Flow label is used to address a series of packets. D. The total header size is 20 bytes. Explanation: The default Hop Limit is 255. The total header size is 40 bytes.
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3. What is true about IPv6 Extension Headers? (Choose all that apply): A. Their concept is similar to the Options field of IPv4. B. Extension header are normally not used. C. If they are used, Extension Headers significantly affect performance. D. Extension headers are located immediately after the payload data E. The one common field of Extension headers is Next Header.
4. Which IPv6 Extension Header would pass optional information to all nodes along a packet's delivery path? A. Hop-by-Hop extension header B. All Hosts extension header C. Destination Options extension header D. Routing extension header E. Fragment extension header
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3. What is true about IPv6 Extension Headers? (Choose all that apply): *A. Their concept is similar to the Options field of IPv4. *B. Extension header are normally not used. C. If they are used, Extension Headers significantly affect performance. D. Extension headers are located immediately after the payload data *E. The one common field of Extension headers is Next Header. Explanation: IPv6 Extension Headers have far less effect on performance than IPv4 Options. Extension headers are located immediately after the IP header and before the payload data
4. Which IPv6 Extension Header would pass optional information to all nodes along a packet's delivery path? *A. Hop-by-Hop extension header B. All Hosts extension header C. Destination Options extension header D. Routing extension header E. Fragment extension header Explanation: The Hop-by-Hop extension header would pass optional information to all nodes along a packet's delivery path
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5. Which IPv6 Extension Header would pass optional information to final destination of the packet? A. Hop-by-Hop extension header B. Destination Options extension header C. Routing extension header D. Fragment extension header E. Final Options extension header
6. What does the IPv6 Routing Extension header do? A. Passes optional information to all points along the route except the destination. B. It is used to specify routes for the packet. C. It is used to discover the maximum packet size that a router will accept. D. It is used to pass information to the default gateway.
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5. Which IPv6 Extension Header would pass optional information to final destination of the packet? A. Hop-by-Hop extension header *B. Destination Options extension header C. Routing extension header D. Fragment extension header E. Final Options extension header
6. What does the IPv6 Routing Extension header do? A. Passes optional information to all points along the route except the destination. *B. It is used to specify routes for the packet. C. It is used to discover the maximum packet size that a router will accept. D. It is used to pass information to the default gateway. Explanation: The IPv6 Routing Extension header specifies routes for the packet.
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7. What does the Fragment extension header do? A. It divides packets that are larger than the MTU. B. It reassembles packets. C. It passes information to routers so they can fragment packets D. It allows the receiving system to specify the packet size.
8. If IPv6 Extension header are used, which one should come first after the IPV6 header and which one should come last? A. First: Authentication extension header B. Last: Encapsulating Security Payload extension header C. Last: Upper-Layer header (payload) D. First: Hop-by-hop extension header
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7. What does the Fragment extension header do? *A. It divides packets that are larger than the MTU. B. It reassembles packets. C. It passes information to routers so they can fragment packets D. It allows the receiving system to specify the packet size. Explanation: The Fragment Extension header divides packets that are larger than the MTU.
8. If IPv6 Extension header are used, which one should come first after the IPV6 header and which one should come last? A. First: Authentication extension header B. Last: Encapsulating Security Payload extension header *C. Last: Upper-Layer header (payload) *D. First: Hop-by-hop extension header Explanation: The recommended first header is the Hop-by-Hop extension header. The recommended last extension header is the Upper-Layer extension header (payload)
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9. You are the Network Administrator at Foghorn Marine Outfitters. You just installed IPv6 and manually assigned IP addresses. A user boots up his machine and to his chagrin, he gets a message that a duplicate IP address has been detected. You shut down his machine and from another machine you issue the following command to detect the hostname of the computer with the duplicate IP address A. ping6 -a fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd B. ping6 -n 4 fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd C. ping6 -t fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd D. ping6 -s ::127.0.0.1 fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd
10. Which IPv6 command is the equivalent of IPv4's ipconfig command? A. ifconfig B. ifconfig6 C. ipconfig6 D. ipv6
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9. You are the Network Administrator at Foghorn Marine Outfitters. You just installed IPv6 and manually assigned IP addresses. A user boots up his machine and to his chagrin, he gets a message that a duplicate IP address has been detected. You shut down his machine and from another machine you issue the following command to detect the hostname of the computer with the duplicate IP address *A. ping6 -a fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd B. ping6 -n 4 fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd C. ping6 -t fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd D. ping6 -s ::127.0.0.1 fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd Explanation: ping6 -a fe80::280:5fff:feea:c3dd resolves the hostname for the computer with the duplicate IP address.
10. Which IPv6 command is the equivalent of IPv4's ipconfig command? A. ifconfig B. ifconfig6 C. ipconfig6 *D. ipv6 Explanation: Ipv6 is the equivalent of ipconfig
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11. From an IPv6 host, you wish to trace the route to www.microsoft.com. Which command would you use? A. tracert www.microsoft.com B. tracert6 www.microsoft.com C. traceroute6 www.microsoft.com D. traceroute www.microsoft.com
12. To speed up your IPv6 network, you would use the following command to avoid a three-way TCP handshake? A. tftp B. ttcp C. ttcp6 D. handoff
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11. From an IPv6 host, you wish to trace the route to www.microsoft.com. Which command would you use? A. tracert www.microsoft.com *B. tracert6 www.microsoft.com C. traceroute6 www.microsoft.com D. traceroute www.microsoft.com Explanation: tracert6 www.microsoft.com
12. To speed up your IPv6 network, you would use the following command to avoid a three-way TCP handshake? A. tftp *B. ttcp C. ttcp6 D. handoff Explanation: The ttcp command can be used to avoid the three way TCP handshake.
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13. In order to display the IPv6 configuration of your computer, type: A. ipconfig /all B. ifconfig C. ipv6 127.0.0.1 D. ipv6 if
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13. In order to display the IPv6 configuration of your computer, type: A. ipconfig /all B. ifconfig C. ipv6 127.0.0.1 *D. ipv6 if Explanation: "ipv6 if" displays the IPv6 configuration of your computer.
Notes:
IPv6 Address Architecture 255
Chapter 10: IPv6 Address Architecture 1. Melissa asks you what is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You tell her that there are three fundamental differences? (Choose all that apply): A. Utilities B. length C. Notation D. Number System
2. Jill understands IPv4's doted decimal format but wants to understand how IPv6 addresses are expressed. You say that: (Choose all that apply): A. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length B. IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon notation C. IPv6 addresses are expressed in octal D. IPv6 addresses are expressed in binary
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1. Melissa asks you what is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You tell her that there are three fundamental differences? (Choose all that apply): A. Utilities *B. length *C. Notation *D. Number System Explanation: Although the utilities vary from IPv4 to IPv6, the fundamental differences are length, notation and number system.
2. Jill understands IPv4's doted decimal format but wants to understand how IPv6 addresses are expressed. You say that: (Choose all that apply): *A. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length *B. IPv6 addresses are expressed in colon notation C. IPv6 addresses are expressed in octal D. IPv6 addresses are expressed in binary Explanation: IPv6 addresses are expressed in hexadecimal.
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3. Which of the following have the correct decimal equivalents of hexadecimal numbers? (Choose all the correct numbers): A. FFh = 255 B. 10h = 16 C. 5CEh = (5 * 10^16) + (12 *10^16) + (14*10^16) D. A00h = 10*16^3
4. You have an IP address of 131.107.2.1? If the IPv4 system used a dotted hexadecimal notation, what would the equivalent hexadecimal address be? A. 83.6B.2.1 B. A3.5C.2.1 C. 67.24.2.1 D. AF.CD.2.1
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3. Which of the following have the correct decimal equivalents of hexadecimal numbers? (Choose all the correct numbers): *A. FFh = 255 *B. 10h = 16 C. 5CEh = (5 * 10^16) + (12 *10^16) + (14*10^16) D. A00h = 10*16^3 Explanation: A00 = (0*16^0) + (0*16^1) + (10*16^2) = (10*16^2). The least significant digit is worth the value of that digit times the base of the number system to the zero power.
4. You have an IP address of 131.107.2.1? If the IPv4 system used a dotted hexadecimal notation, what would the equivalent hexadecimal address be? *A. 83.6B.2.1 B. A3.5C.2.1 C. 67.24.2.1 D. AF.CD.2.1 Explanation: Sixteen goes into 131 eight times with a remainder of three, so the hexadecimal equivalent of 131 is 83h. Sixteen goes into 107 six times with a remainder of 11, which is B in hex. Therefore the hex equivalent of 107 is 6B.
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5. Your computers IP address is 131.107.2.1. Convert this to an IPv6 address. (Choose 2 correct notations): A. ::836B:0201 B. ::83:6B:2:1 C. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:836B:0201 D. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:836B:21
6. What is the IPv4 address represented by the following IPv6 address? ::7F00:0001 A. 127.0.0.1 B. 255.0.0.1 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 131.107.2.1
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5. Your computers IP address is 131.107.2.1. Convert this to an IPv6 address. (Choose 2 correct notations): *A. ::836B:0201 B. ::83:6B:2:1 *C. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:836B:0201 D. 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:836B:21 Explanation: ::836B:0201, and 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:836B:0201 are correct. Although there is a colon between each block of four hexadecimal addresses, it is invisibly divided into two parts with two hexadecimal numbers representing one octet and the remaining two hexadecimal numbers representing the other octet of an IPv4 address.
6. What is the IPv4 address represented by the following IPv6 address? ::7F00:0001 *A. 127.0.0.1 B. 255.0.0.1 C. 255.255.255.0 D. 131.107.2.1 Explanation: Although there is a colon between each block of four hexadecimal addresses, it is invisibly divided into two parts with two hexadecimal numbers representing one octet and the remaining two hexadecimal numbers representing the other octet of an IPv4 address.
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7. Which of the following are valid IPv6 abbreviations? (Choose all the correct answers): A. 007F = 7F B. 07F0 = 7F C. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4::E346:: D. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4::E346:0:0 E. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4:0:0:0:0:E346::
8. You wish to send a transmission to the nearest "mail server" that exists in 100 domains. What would be the most efficient way to do this? A. Unicast B. Multicast C. Broadcast D. Anycast
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7. Which of the following are valid IPv6 abbreviations? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. 007F = 7F B. 07F0 = 7F C. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4::E346:: *D. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4::E346:0:0 *E. A4B4:0000:0000:0000:0000:E346:0000:0000 = A4B4:0:0:0:0:E346:: Explanation: Due to ambiguity, :: can only be used once in an abbreviation. 07F0 may be abbreviated 7F0.
8. You wish to send a transmission to the nearest "mail server" that exists in 100 domains. What would be the most efficient way to do this? A. Unicast B. Multicast C. Broadcast *D. Anycast Explanation: Anycast is similar to multicast, in that specifically addresses a group of systems. It differs in that it may use a generic name such as "name server" or "mail server" to reference only one member of that group, and where multiple servers in a group would fit the description, for efficiency, only the nearest member of the anycast group that fits the description would receive the anycast.
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9. Your local NIC has a local link address and a Aggregatable Global Unicast address. Which address will the computer use? (Choose 2): A. It will use the link local address for computers on the same link B. It will use the link local address for loopback functions C. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address for loopback functions D. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address to communicate with computers in different corporations. E. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address to speak with computers in any location within your corporation.
10. Which of the following IPv6 addresses (in binary) are reserved for what purpose? (Choose all that apply): A. 1111 1110 10 Local Link 1111 1110 11 Site Local 1111 1111 Multicast B. 0000 0000 Reserved 0000 001 Reserved for NASP 0000 010 Reserved for IPX C. 001 Aggregatable Global Unicast addresses 100 Unicast addresses D. 1111 001 Aggregatable Global Unicast addresses 1111 100 Unicast addresses
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9. Your local NIC has a local link address and a Aggregatable Global Unicast address. Which address will the computer use? (Choose 2): *A. It will use the link local address for computers on the same link B. It will use the link local address for loopback functions C. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address for loopback functions *D. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address to communicate with computers in different corporations. E. It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address to speak with computers in any location within your corporation. Explanation: It will use the Aggregatable Global Unicast address to communicate with computers in different corporations and it will use the link local address for computers on the same link.
10. Which of the following IPv6 addresses (in binary) are reserved for what purpose? (Choose all that apply): *A. 1111 1110 10 Local Link 1111 1110 11 Site Local 1111 1111 Multicast *B. 0000 0000 Reserved 0000 001 Reserved for NASP 0000 010 Reserved for IPX *C. 001 Aggregatable Global Unicast addresses 100 Unicast addresses D. 1111 001 Aggregatable Global Unicast addresses 1111 100 Unicast addresses Explanation: 001 Aggregatable Global Unicast addresses 100 Unicast addresses
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11. What is an Aggregatable Global Unicast address in IPv6? A. It is similar a IPv4 unicast address. B. It is similar a IPv4 multicast address C. It is similar a IPv4 broadcast address D. it is an anycast address which is unique to IPv6
12. The format of a Aggregatable Global Unicast address is as follows: A. Prefix, TLA, NLA, SLA, Host Address B. TLA, NLA, SLA, Host Address C. Prefix, ALA, SLA, Host Address D. ALA, SLA, Host Address
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11. What is an Aggregatable Global Unicast address in IPv6? *A. It is similar a IPv4 unicast address. B. It is similar a IPv4 multicast address C. It is similar a IPv4 broadcast address D. it is an anycast address which is unique to IPv6 Explanation: An Aggregatable Global Unicast address in IPv6 is similar to the unique point-to-point Internet address in IPv4.
12. The format of a Aggregatable Global Unicast address is as follows: *A. Prefix, TLA, NLA, SLA, Host Address B. TLA, NLA, SLA, Host Address C. Prefix, ALA, SLA, Host Address D. ALA, SLA, Host Address Explanation: The Prefix is followed by the Top level Aggregator, Next Level Aggregator, Site Level Aggregator and the Host Address.
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13. What portion of an IPv6 address is used by the backbone routers of the Internet? A. Network address B. Host Address C. TLA D. NLA E. SLA
14. What portion of an IPv6 address is used by the long-haul provider routers of the Internet? A. Host address B. TLA C. NLA D. SLA E. Network Address
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13. What portion of an IPv6 address is used by the backbone routers of the Internet? A. Network address B. Host Address *C. TLA D. NLA E. SLA Explanation: The Top level Aggregator is used by the Internet backbone routers.
14. What portion of an IPv6 address is used by the long-haul provider routers of the Internet? A. Host address B. TLA *C. NLA D. SLA E. Network Address Explanation: The NLA (Next level Aggregator) is used by the routers long-haul Internet providers. It provides a hierarchy. Just as if you were driving from one end of the country to the other, you would go from your street to an avenue to the Interstate to the vicinity of your destination, then to destination avenue to the destination street. You wouldn't take local streets the whole way or start taking avenues midway to your destination.
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15. Sally's computer has a NIC address is A2-69-95-6C-AB-34. For sally's computer, what is the host address in IPv6? A. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34 B. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34-00-00 C. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34-FF-FE D. A2-69-95-FF-FE-6C-AB-34 E. A2-69-95-FE-FF-6C-AB-34
16. Martha's IP address is 200.0.0.1. She installs the IPv6 protocol stack. She wants to test IPv6 to see if it installed correctly and then test connectivity to Jody who is at IP address 200.0.0.2 and who has also just install IPv6. Which of the following commands would be useful? (Choose all that apply): A. Ping ::1 to see if the loopback address is responding. B. Ping ::200.0.0.1 would be pinging the local computer. C. Ping ::200.0.0.2 would be pinging Jody. D. Ping FE80::200:0:0.2 would be pinging Jody
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15. Sally's computer has a NIC address is A2-69-95-6C-AB-34. For sally's computer, what is the host address in IPv6? A. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34 B. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34-00-00 C. A2-69-95-6C-AB-34-FF-FE *D. A2-69-95-FF-FE-6C-AB-34 E. A2-69-95-FE-FF-6C-AB-34 Explanation: FF-FE is inserted in the middle of the Nic address.
16. Martha's IP address is 200.0.0.1. She installs the IPv6 protocol stack. She wants to test IPv6 to see if it installed correctly and then test connectivity to Jody who is at IP address 200.0.0.2 and who has also just install IPv6. Which of the following commands would be useful? (Choose all that apply): *A. Ping ::1 to see if the loopback address is responding. *B. Ping ::200.0.0.1 would be pinging the local computer. *C. Ping ::200.0.0.2 would be pinging Jody. *D. Ping FE80::200:0:0.2 would be pinging Jody Explanation: FE80::host address is the Link local address and will not be forwarded by routers, but will find Jody on the same subnet.
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17. Which of the following are valid IPv6 multicast addresses? (Choose all the correct answers): A. FF02::1 all nodes B. FF02::2 all routers C. FF02:1:1 link name D. FF02:1:2, FF02:1:3, FF02:1:4, SNMP agents, NMSs and proxies E. FF02:1:2, FF02:1:3, FF02:1:4, DHCP agents, servers and relays
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17. Which of the following are valid IPv6 multicast addresses? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. FF02::1 all nodes *B. FF02::2 all routers *C. FF02:1:1 link name D. FF02:1:2, FF02:1:3, FF02:1:4, SNMP agents, NMSs and proxies *E. FF02:1:2, FF02:1:3, FF02:1:4, DHCP agents, servers and relays Explanation: Most of the multicast group identifiers start with FF02.
Notes:
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Chapter 11: IPv6 Routing and Security 1. What is the advantages and the primary disadvantages of variable length IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply); A. Advantage: Increased IPv6 flexibility B. Disadvantage: Make it difficult to renumber addresses C. Disadvantage: When required, changes to the NLA would not affect the TLA and the SLA. D. Advantage: The ability to tailor the address space to the country or Geographic region.
2. In IPv6 what replaces Classless InterDomain Routing (CIDR) in IPv6 A. Variable length masking B. Anymask C. TLA D. ESP
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1. What is the advantages and the primary disadvantages of variable length IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply); *A. Advantage: Increased IPv6 flexibility *B. Disadvantage: Make it difficult to renumber addresses C. Disadvantage: When required, changes to the NLA would not affect the TLA and the SLA. *D. Advantage: The ability to tailor the address space to the country or Geographic region. Explanation: A disadvantage of variable length IPv6 addresses is that changes to the size of one component of the address would affect the size of another component or components.
2. In IPv6 what replaces Classless InterDomain Routing (CIDR) in IPv6 A. Variable length masking B. Anymask *C. TLA D. ESP Explanation: In IPv6 the Top Level Aggregator (TLA) replaces CIDR.
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3. The IPv6 standard recommends the following routing protocols; (Choose 2): A. RIP B. EGP C. OSPF D. IDRP E. BGP
4. Consider three IPv6 prefixes: 2FE2:10:EE00:AC2::/64 2FE2:10:EE00::/48 2FE2::/16 What are they used for? A. TLA, SLA, CLA B. TLA, NLA, SLA C. SLA, NLA, TLA D. NLA, TLA, SLA
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3. The IPv6 standard recommends the following routing protocols; (Choose 2): A. RIP B. EGP *C. OSPF *D. IDRP E. BGP Explanation: IPv6 recommends using OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and IDRP (InterDomain Routing Protocol) for routing protocols.
4. Consider three IPv6 prefixes: 2FE2:10:EE00:AC2::/64 2FE2:10:EE00::/48 2FE2::/16 What are they used for? A. TLA, SLA, CLA B. TLA, NLA, SLA *C. SLA, NLA, TLA D. NLA, TLA, SLA Explanation: 2FE2::/16 2FE2:10:EE00::/48 2FE2:10:EE00:AC2::/64
TLA NLA SLA
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5. ICMPv6 handles multicast routing using the following three group management messages: A. Group Membership Query B. Group Membership Report C. Group Membership Invitation D. Group Membership Initiation E. Group membership Reduction
6. What are the advantages of IDRP over BGPv4? (Choose 2): A. BGPv4 uses TCP while IDRP messages uses bare datagrams. B. BGPv4 presently can only route 32-bit addresses C. While BGPv4 uses a 16 bit field length to identify autonomous systems, IDRP uses a larger 32 bit fixed length field. D. IDRP identifies all intermediate autonomous systems
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5. ICMPv6 handles multicast routing using the following three group management messages: *A. Group Membership Query *B. Group Membership Report C. Group Membership Invitation D. Group Membership Initiation *E. Group membership Reduction Explanation: Routers send a Group Membership Query to see who is a multicast group member, while multicast group members respond with a Group Membership Report to show that they are members. If a multicast group member wants to drop out, then that host sends a Group Membership Reduction.
6. What are the advantages of IDRP over BGPv4? (Choose 2): *A. BGPv4 uses TCP while IDRP messages uses bare datagrams. *B. BGPv4 presently can only route 32-bit addresses C. While BGPv4 uses a 16 bit field length to identify autonomous systems, IDRP uses a larger 32 bit fixed length field. D. IDRP identifies all intermediate autonomous systems Explanation: IDRP uses a variable length field to address domains. IDRP does not have to identify all the intermediate autonomous systems because it builds upon the hierarchical routing concept of IPv6.
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7. Within an organization's network, what routing protocol is recommended for use with IPv6 (provided the protocol is updated to work with 128-bit addresses)? A. BGPv4 B. IDRP C. IGP D. OSPF E. RIP
8. What are the two types of security provided by IPv6? A. Robust B. Site specific C. Authentication D. Confidentiality E. Non-repudiation
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7. Within an organization's network, what routing protocol is recommended for use with IPv6 (provided the protocol is updated to work with 128-bit addresses)? A. BGPv4 B. IDRP C. IGP *D. OSPF E. RIP Explanation: OSPFv2 is recommended for interior routing with IPv6.
8. What are the two types of security provided by IPv6? A. Robust B. Site specific *C. Authentication *D. Confidentiality E. Non-repudiation Explanation: Rather than implementing security as an add on application, IPv6 security is integrated with the protocol at the Internet layer.
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9. How does IPv6 provide the option for authentication? (choose 2): A. SSL B. Authentication extension header C. MD5 D. RSA
10. Mary wants to know how IPv6 implements confidentiality. You tell her that? (Choose 2): A. Confidentiality means hiding the information that is transferred. B. Confidentiality means insuring that data is not altered. C. IPv6 uses an ESP extension header D. IPv6 uses an PGP extension header
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9. How does IPv6 provide the option for authentication? (choose 2): A. SSL *B. Authentication extension header *C. MD5 D. RSA Explanation: IPv6 supports an Authentication extension header that currently uses MD5.
10. Mary wants to know how IPv6 implements confidentiality. You tell her that? (Choose 2): *A. Confidentiality means hiding the information that is transferred. B. Confidentiality means insuring that data is not altered. *C. IPv6 uses an ESP extension header D. IPv6 uses an PGP extension header Explanation: IPv6 uses an Encrypted Security Payload extension header to hide the data from eavesdroppers.
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11. What is true about an ESP extension header? (Choose 2): A. Security Parameters Index identifies the encryption algorithm B. Authentication Data identifies the algorithm used to verify the sender. C. Sequence number identifies the packet. D. Encrypted Data and Parameters is fixed in length
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11. What is true about an ESP extension header? (Choose 2): A. Security Parameters Index identifies the encryption algorithm *B. Authentication Data identifies the algorithm used to verify the sender. *C. Sequence number identifies the packet. D. Encrypted Data and Parameters is fixed in length Explanation: Security Parameters Index identifies the security association. Encrypted Data and Parameters is variable in length.
Notes:
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Chapter 12: Reduced Network Management (IPv6) 1. Mr. Rodgers is now a IPv6 Guru who has a Kid's Science TV show that this week features the Neighbor Discovery (ND) Protocol. Which of the following is true because Mr. Rodgers says so? (Choose all the correct answers): A. ND reduces the amount of time required for address configuration. B. ND allows hosts to find routers and let's hosts and routers determine each others link layer addresses. C. ND enables nodes to find other nodes and nodes to maintain reachability information. D. ND provides nodes with path status to active neighbors. E. ND uses ICMP and IGMP messages
2. ICMPv6 removed which of the ICMPv4 messages types? (Choose 2): A. Source Quench B. Destination Unreachable C. Subnet Mask Request/Subnet Mask Reply D. Packet too big.
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1. Mr. Rodgers is now a IPv6 Guru who has a Kid's Science TV show that this week features the Neighbor Discovery (ND) Protocol. Which of the following is true because Mr. Rodgers says so? (Choose all the correct answers): *A. ND reduces the amount of time required for address configuration. *B. ND allows hosts to find routers and let's hosts and routers determine each others link layer addresses. *C. ND enables nodes to find other nodes and nodes to maintain reachability information. *D. ND provides nodes with path status to active neighbors. E. ND uses ICMP and IGMP messages Explanation: ND uses ICMPv6 messages including Router Solicitation, Router Advertisement, Neighbor Solicitation, Neighbor Advertisement and Redirect. ICMP Type 2 for IPv6 no longer uses IGMP messages.
2. ICMPv6 removed which of the ICMPv4 messages types? (Choose 2): *A. Source Quench B. Destination Unreachable *C. Subnet Mask Request/Subnet Mask Reply D. Packet too big. Explanation: ICMPv6 removes the following ICMPv4 message types: Source Quench, Subnet Mask Request/Subnet Mask Reply, Timestamp Request/Timestamp Reply, Information Request/Information Reply.
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3. The following message types were added to ICMPv6: (Choose all that apply): A. Group Membership Query | Report | Reduction. B. Router Solicitation | Report C. Neighbor Solicitation | Report D. Packet Too Big
4. Which of the following are ICMPv6 message types? (Choose all that apply): A. Destination Unreachable B. Source Quench C. Packet Too Big D. Time Exceeded E. Parameter Problem.
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3. The following message types were added to ICMPv6: (Choose all that apply): *A. Group Membership Query | Report | Reduction. B. Router Solicitation | Report C. Neighbor Solicitation | Report *D. Packet Too Big Explanation: Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement as well as Neighbor Solicitation and Neighbor Advertisement are added message types.
4. Which of the following are ICMPv6 message types? (Choose all that apply): *A. Destination Unreachable B. Source Quench *C. Packet Too Big *D. Time Exceeded *E. Parameter Problem. Explanation: Source quench was dropped from ICMPv6.
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5. What message would be sent by a IPv6 router to tell a host that a better first hop exists? A. Destination Unreachable B. Packet Too Big C. Parameter Problem D. Redirect E. Group Membership Reduction
6. David is interested in plug-and-play autoconfiguration. What does benefits does it provide? (Choose all that apply): A. Creates a link-local address and verifies that it is unique on the link. B. If a router is present on the link, stateless autoconfiguration will append the router's prefix to the link-local address to create a Aggregatable Global Unicast address. C. Stateful configuration requires a DHCP server D. For both stateful and stateless configuration, basic authentication is used to determine which systems are authorized to receive configuration information. E. For both stateful and stateless configuration, Duplicate Address Detection algorithm is used.
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5. What message would be sent by a IPv6 router to tell a host that a better first hop exists? A. Destination Unreachable B. Packet Too Big C. Parameter Problem *D. Redirect E. Group Membership Reduction Explanation: A redirect message would be sent by a IPv6 router to tell a host that a better first hop exists
6. David is interested in plug-and-play autoconfiguration. What does benefits does it provide? (Choose all that apply): *A. Creates a link-local address and verifies that it is unique on the link. *B. If a router is present on the link, stateless autoconfiguration will append the router's prefix to the link-local address to create a Aggregatable Global Unicast address. *C. Stateful configuration requires a DHCP server D. For both stateful and stateless configuration, basic authentication is used to determine which systems are authorized to receive configuration information. *E. For both stateful and stateless configuration, Duplicate Address Detection algorithm is used. Explanation: For only stateful configuration, basic authentication may be used to determine which systems are authorized to receive configuration information.
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7. What may be used to create a link local address? (Choose 2): A. Address server B. NIC address C. Router's prefix D. Managed address configuration
8. When does a router send a Router Advertisement message? (Choose all that apply): A. Every 30 seconds B. On a schedule C. In response to Router Solicitation messages D. In response to an Address Server ICMPv6 message
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7. What may be used to create a link local address? (Choose 2): *A. Address server *B. NIC address C. Router's prefix D. Managed address configuration Explanation: An address server (DHCP) or the NIC/physical/MAC/link layer address is used to determine the link local address.
8. When does a router send a Router Advertisement message? (Choose all that apply): A. Every 30 seconds *B. On a schedule *C. In response to Router Solicitation messages D. In response to an Address Server ICMPv6 message Explanation: Router Advertisement messages are sent either on a schedule or in response to a Router Solicitation message.
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9. For what period of time does a Router Advertisement provide valid default router information? (choose 2): A. For up to three days or the lease period. B. Until the Router Lifetime is exceeded C. Until the Reachable Time is exceeded D. From 1 second to 18.4 hours.
10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose all that apply): A. Advantages: Integrates with Active Directory and NMSs. B. Advantages: No server is required, no host configuration is required, and minimal or no router configuration is required. C. Advantages: Works with from zero to four NICs bound to multiple protocols at the link layer. D. Disadvantages: Lack of Security E. Disadvantages: It requires an administrator
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9. For what period of time does a Router Advertisement provide valid default router information? (choose 2): A. For up to three days or the lease period. *B. Until the Router Lifetime is exceeded C. Until the Reachable Time is exceeded *D. From 1 second to 18.4 hours. Explanation: The Router Advertisement message provides a 1 second to 18.4 hour Router Lifetime value for the default router.
10. What are the advantages and disadvantages of stateless autoconfiguration? (Choose all that apply): A. Advantages: Integrates with Active Directory and NMSs. *B. Advantages: No server is required, no host configuration is required, and minimal or no router configuration is required. C. Advantages: Works with from zero to four NICs bound to multiple protocols at the link layer. *D. Disadvantages: Lack of Security E. Disadvantages: It requires an administrator Explanation: Another disadvantage is a lack of configuration parameters, whereas DHCPv6 stateful configuration can pass other configuration parameters.
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11. What replaces ARP in IPv6? (Choose 2): A. ARPv6 B. RARPv6 C. ND D. ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation and Neighbor Advertisement messages
12. Harry wants to view his computer's neighbor cache. What command would he use? A. ipv6 nc B. arpv6 nc C. nc -s D. cache -s
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11. What replaces ARP in IPv6? (Choose 2): A. ARPv6 B. RARPv6 *C. ND *D. ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation and Neighbor Advertisement messages Explanation: ND replaces ARP. ND uses ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation and Neighbor Advertisement messages.
12. Harry wants to view his computer's neighbor cache. What command would he use? *A. ipv6 nc B. arpv6 nc C. nc -s D. cache -s Explanation: ipv6 nc
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Chapter 13: Transitioning to IPv6 1. Your manager, Sam Spade, is concerned about jumping on the IPv6 bandwagon before the standard is mature. What issues must be addressed to allay his concerns. (Choose 2): A. The most important goal is to let IPv4 and IPv6 to interoperate. B. IPv6 hosts and routers must be interdependent. C. Transition must be as simple as possible D. IPv5 is an already mature bridge protocol.
2. Jerry is encouraged by the following Simple Internet Transition (SIT) [to IPv6] features: (Choose all that apply): A. IPv6 TCP/IP stack updates likely will be free downloads B. IPv4 hosts and routers that upgrade to IPv6 may still use IPv4 addresses C. Neither Routers nor DNS Servers will need to be upgraded. D. Phased upgrade schedule with full IPv6 implementation by 2005.
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1. Your manager, Sam Spade, is concerned about jumping on the IPv6 bandwagon before the standard is mature. What issues must be addressed to allay his concerns. (Choose 2): *A. The most important goal is to let IPv4 and IPv6 to interoperate. B. IPv6 hosts and routers must be interdependent. *C. Transition must be as simple as possible D. IPv5 is an already mature bridge protocol. Explanation: IPv6 hosts and routers must NOT be interdependent.
2. Jerry is encouraged by the following Simple Internet Transition (SIT) [to IPv6] features: (Choose all that apply): *A. IPv6 TCP/IP stack updates likely will be free downloads *B. IPv4 hosts and routers that upgrade to IPv6 may still use IPv4 addresses C. Neither Routers nor DNS Servers will need to be upgraded. D. Phased upgrade schedule with full IPv6 implementation by 2005. Explanation: DNS Servers must be upgraded to handle IPv6 DNS records. There is no upgrade schedule. IP routers and hosts may be upgraded one at a time.
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3. During the IPv4 to IPv6 transition what will be used? (Choose the best answer): A. A transitional IPv6 stack B. An IPv6 stack that also supports IPv4 C. A dual IP stack D. An upgrade to the IPv4 stack
4. Yoda has mastered SIT. He uses the following mechanisms: (Choose 3): A. Virtual IP addressing B. IPv6 to IPv4 mapping C. Dual IP stacks D. IPv4 addresses embedded in IPv6 addresses E. IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling
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3. During the IPv4 to IPv6 transition what will be used? (Choose the best answer): A. A transitional IPv6 stack B. An IPv6 stack that also supports IPv4 *C. A dual IP stack D. An upgrade to the IPv4 stack Explanation: The IPv4 to IPv6 will use a dual IP stack
4. Yoda has mastered SIT. He uses the following mechanisms: (Choose 3): A. Virtual IP addressing B. IPv6 to IPv4 mapping *C. Dual IP stacks *D. IPv4 addresses embedded in IPv6 addresses *E. IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling Explanation: Simple Internet Transitions uses: -Dual IP stacks -IPv4 addresses embedded in IPv6 addresses -IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling
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5. Which of the following statements are true regarding host, router and DNS server upgrades to support IPv6? (Choose all that apply): A. Hosts will need a very small (a few kilobyte) download to convert to a dualstack computer. B. Many routers already support more than one protocol, such as IPX as well as IPv4, so support for the additional IPv6 routing code and coexistence with IPv4 routing code should not be a problem in most cases. C. DNS Servers will have to upgrade the size limit of A records. D. Out of the box, NT Server 4.0 is capable of supporting DNS records for IPv6 provided the IPv6 stack update from Microsoft Research is installed.
6. IPv4 addresses may be embedded in IPv6 addresses what format would be used with IP address 192.168.3.4.? (Choose 2): A. ::192.68.3.4 B. ::192:68:3:4 C. ::19268:34 D. 0.0.0.0.0.0.192.68.3.4 E. 0:0:0:0:0:0.192.69.3.4
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5. Which of the following statements are true regarding host, router and DNS server upgrades to support IPv6? (Choose all that apply): *A. Hosts will need a very small (a few kilobyte) download to convert to a dual-stack computer. *B. Many routers already support more than one protocol, such as IPX as well as IPv4, so support for the additional IPv6 routing code and coexistence with IPv4 routing code should not be a problem in most cases. C. DNS Servers will have to upgrade the size limit of A records. D. Out of the box, NT Server 4.0 is capable of supporting DNS records for IPv6 provided the IPv6 stack update from Microsoft Research is installed. Explanation: DNSv6 servers will use AAAA records for IPv6 hosts. NT Server 4.0 requires Service Pack 5 or higher.
6. IPv4 addresses may be embedded in IPv6 addresses what format would be used with IP address 192.168.3.4.? (Choose 2): A. ::192.68.3.4 B. ::192:68:3:4 C. ::19268:34 D. 0.0.0.0.0.0.192.68.3.4 *E. 0:0:0:0:0:0.192.69.3.4 Explanation: A combination of dotted decimal and double colon is used.
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7. The IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling backbone is referred to as the: (Choose the best answer): A. T-Bone B. Back-Six C. 6Bone D. IPv6-Backplane
8. Which routing protocols have been tested on the 6Bone? (Choose all that apply): A. RIPv6 B. OSPFv6 C. BGPv6 D. IDRP
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7. The IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling backbone is referred to as the: (Choose the best answer): A. T-Bone B. Back-Six *C. 6Bone D. IPv6-Backplane Explanation: The IPv6-in-IPv4 tunneling backbone is referred to as the 6Bone.
8. Which routing protocols have been tested on the 6Bone? (Choose all that apply): *A. RIPv6 *B. OSPFv6 C. BGPv6 *D. IDRP Explanation: BGPv4+ has been tested on the 6Bone
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9. What two steps are required to join the 6Bone? A. RFC submittal B. ISP sponsorship application C. Telco approval D. Install a connection E. Prepare an island
10. Handspring would like to participate in IPv6 networks with dynamic address allocation. What protocol would be used? A. Mobile IP for IPv6 B. Lapnote IPv6 C. DSL+ IPv6 D. IPv6-Runner
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9. What two steps are required to join the 6Bone? A. RFC submittal B. ISP sponsorship application C. Telco approval *D. Install a connection *E. Prepare an island Explanation: Each island requires IPv6 capable hosts and at least one IPv6-capable router.
10. Handspring would like to participate in IPv6 networks with dynamic address allocation. What protocol would be used? *A. Mobile IP for IPv6 B. Lapnote IPv6 C. DSL+ IPv6 D. IPv6-Runner Explanation: Mobile IP for IPv6 will be well suited for mobile nodes.
Notes:
Check out TotalRecall Publication’s other CIW Certification books at www.TotalRecallPress.com
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ExamWise For
CIW Foundations
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CIW Site Designer
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CIW E-Commerce Designer
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CIW Server Administrator
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CIW Internetworking Professional
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CIW Security Professional
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